First, start of by saying what the probability of getting a 4 is, which is 1/6.
Now, this means the probability of not getting a 4 is 1-(1/6)=(5/6), since the total probability is 1.
After doing this, you should think about what it means to only get 4 on the last trial, the 4th trial. It means that the probabilities of the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd trial were (5/6) each. The 4th trial had a probability of (1/6). So the probability would be calculated as following: (
=
. You can use a calculator or your computer to find out that the probability is 125/1296.
I hope this was helpful!
Remember the acronym SOH CAH TOA. Sin is your Opposite/hypotenuse. Cosine is the adjacent/hypotenuse and tangent is your opposite/adjacent. Depending on where angle T is placed, your answer could be either A or D. 7, 24, and 25 is a common Pythagorean triple.
Answer: 5 + 5w
Step-by-step explanation:
We can use the variable <em>x </em>to describe each additional hour, although the vairable can be substituted for any other vairable.
We know that the main cost for one hour is $5, and that each additional hour will cost $5.
Therefore, the equation to reflect this situation would be 5 + 5w, because the first 5 represents the first hour, and the 5w represents how much each hour costs. If you rent two extra hours, then the cost would end up being 15, because the equation would become: 5 + (5x2) = 15.
The equation is 5 + 5w. Hope this helps, and good luck!
Answer:
1/5 = 3/15
2/3 = 10/15
When all Added up
= 13/15
Step-by-step explanation:
So our LCD here is 15.
So in order to go from 5 to 15, we multiply by 3, and In order to go from 3 to 15, we multiply by 5. What we do to the denominator we also do to the numerator.
So,
And,
So there you go, multiply for what you need to get to the LCD, and what is done to the numerator is also done to the denominator. Enjoy
*If this Helped I'd Also Appreciate 5* and a ♥ Thanks!*
Answer:
68 percent
Step-by-step explanation: