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Tresset [83]
3 years ago
14

If you have 16 cups of sugar , 2 cups of sugar for every batch of cookies , but you have to save 6 cups of sugar for something e

lse . How many batches of cookies can you make?
Mathematics
1 answer:
sesenic [268]3 years ago
8 0
The first step we want to take here is to subtract 6 cups of sugar since we'll need it for something else, leaving us with 10 cups of sugar. It takes 2 cups of sugar for every batch of cookies, so you're going to divide 10 by 2. Luckily, 2 is a multiple of 10 so it's a whole number. By dividing, we get 5. So, we can make 5 batches of cookies while still saving 6 cups of sugar for something else.
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What is the height of a wall 28 ft long that requires 1568 feet long
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3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
a truck is rented at 40$ per day plus a charge per mile use. The truck traveled 15 miles in one day, and the total charge was 11
Alla [95]

Answer:

15x + 40 = 115

We set the equation to 115 because the total cost is $115.

We add the "+ 40" because of the $40 to rent the trailer for the day.

The 15x is because it represents the miles per hour (x) times the number of hours.

The number of hours times the charge per mile, plus the $40 to rent it, will equal $115.

Hope this helps!!

5 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP ASAP!!! I NEED CORRECT ANSWERS ONLY PLEASE!!!
Mila [183]

Answer:

m\angle H = 44.4\°.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

In Right Angle Triangle GIH

∠ I = 90°

GI = 7    ....Side opposite to angle H

GH = 10  .... Hypotenuse

To Find:

m∠H = ?

Solution:

In Right Angle Triangle ABC ,Sine Identity,

sin \ H = \frac{Oppsite\  side\  to\  \angle H}{Hypotenuse}

Substituting the values we get;

sin\ H = \frac{7}{10} = 0.7

Now taking sin^{-1} we get;

\angle H = sin^{-1}\ 0.7 = 44.427

rounding to nearest tenth we get.

m\angle H = 44.4\°.

Hence m\angle H = 44.4\°.

6 0
3 years ago
Is it possible or not<br> possible to draw a<br> triangle with sides<br> lengths of 4, 5 and 7?
lorasvet [3.4K]

Answer:

No.

Step-by-step explanation:

The Triangle Inequality Theorem states that this is not possible.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If f(x)=2x^2+(1000/x), find the average rate of change of f(x) from x=a to x=a+h.
galina1969 [7]

Answer:

\frac{\frac{1000}{x+h}-\frac{1000}{x}}{h} is your average rate of change,

Step-by-step explanation:

average rate of change is

\frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}{a+h-a}, by slope formula

simplify this to get \frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}, which is the definition of the derivative as h goes to 0

\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(a+h)-f(a)}{h}

since you defined x=a, we can substitute a for x and vice versa to find our derivative.

\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{(2x^2+\frac{1000}{x+h})-(2x^2+\frac{1000}{x})}{h}

simplifying

\lim_{h \to 0} \frac{\frac{1000}{x+h}-\frac{1000}{x}}{h} (your average rate of change)

6 0
2 years ago
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