Answer:
b then a
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Though it may vary, it's going closer to 0.5 as long as we enlarge our sample.
Step-by-step explanation:
1) Since a coin has heads and tails, then a sample proportion of 40 we can simulate it using some applets.
2) Here are the most common outcomes, as long as we continue on flipping coins.
If we continue enlarging our sample (80, 120,160...) the probability goes closer to 0.5
This shows: the theoretical probability goes closer and closer to the experimental probability of heads and tails
Answer: D. Divide 5 by 1,200
Step-by-step explanation:
I know the answer
9514 1404 393
Answer:
A: 66/21
E: 22/7
Step-by-step explanation:
The offered choices reduce to 3 1/7 or to 3. The best approximations of those given are the ones that reduce to 3 1/7.
A: 66/21 = 22/7 = 3 1/7
B: 60/20 = 3
C: 21/7 = 3
D: 45/15 = 3
E: 22/7 = 3 1/7
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<em>Comment on pi approximations</em>
The ratio 22/7 differs from π by about 0.04%. A better approximation is 355/113, which differs from π by about 0.000008%. The approximation 3.14 differs from π by about 0.05%.
Answer:
FG = 44
EG = 80
Step-by-step explanation:
For FG:
1) 5z - 16 = 3z + 8
2) 5z = 3z + 24
3) 2z = 24
4) z = 12
5) 3(12) + 8 = 44
For EG:
1) 2w + 22 = 4w + 4
2) 2w = 4w - 18
3) -2w = -18
4) w = 9
5) 4(9) + 4 + 2w + 22 = 80
