Answer: the difference between the present value of cash inflows and present value of cash outflows
Explanation:
The value of money is always changing and usually for the worst. Inflation means that $1 today is not worth $1 in a year's time. This poses a risk to investors who want to make profit and can't do that if they do not cater for inflation or the loss of value in their profit estimations. This is where Net Present Value comes in.
NET PRESENT VALUE works by subtracting the present value of Cash Outflows ( investment) from the present value of Cash Inflows (Revenue).
To do this, a DISCOUNT RATE is used which is essentially a value that people believe the currency involved will reduce by going forward. This Discount Rate equates the value of money in the future to it's value now.
Once that is ascertained, a proper comparison can be made to see if the investment is worth it.
Answer:
Arbitrary allocation.
Explanation:
Arbitrary allocation is a method where costs budgeted are not based on any precise measurement,hence accurate costs could not be arrived at.
This approach to budgeting breeds inefficiencies as the accurate budgeting is expected to lead to accurate costing of products as well as pricing.
All in all,the true profitability of a business cannot be ascertained.
Finally,the organization adopting this type of approach needs to change to other accurate methods of budgeting such incremental or rolling budgeting.
Answer:
Answer explained below
Explanation:
(1)
IS Model:
Y = C + I + G + X - M
Y = 100 + 0.5Y + 100 - 20r [G = X = M = 0]
(1 - 0.5)Y = 200 - 20r
0.5Y = 200 - 20r
Y = 400 - 40r ......(1) [IS Equation]
LM Model:
Money demand (Speculative + Transactions demand) = Money supply
100 - 10r + 0.1Y = 80
0.1Y = 10r - 20
Y = 100r - 200 .....(2) [LM Equation]
(2) When IS & LM intersect, from part (1):
400 - 40r = 100r - 200
140r = 600
r = 4.29
Y = 100r - 200 = (100 x 4.29) - 200 = 429 - 200 = 229
(3)
There will be four regions as explained below:
In region I, there is excess supply in both goods and money market, which puts downward pressure on both interest rate and output.
In region II, there is excess demand in goods market, but excess supply in money market, which puts upward pressure on output & downward pressure on interest rate.
In region III, there is excess demand in both goods and money market, which puts upward pressure on both interest rate and output.
In region IV, there is excess supply in goods market, but excess demand in money market, which puts downward pressure on output & upward pressure on interest rate.
Production Capital, Human Capital, Resource Capital, and Intellectual Capital...
Let me know if you need to know what those are :)
Answer:
B.Her actions are inconsistent with the advice being given to her clients and this must be disclosed
Explanation:
A registered investment adviser often recommends real estate limited partnership investments to her wealthy clients. The RIA's personal financial statement and income are consistent with those of her wealthy clients, yet she never buys limited partnership units for her personal account. Which statement is TRUE
A real estate limited partnership (RELP) is a group of investors who pool their financial resources to invest in property purchasing, development, or leasing. Under its limited partnership status, This form of partnership has a general partner who bears full liability and limited partners who are predispose only up to the amount they contribute
The registered investment adviser does not practice what she teaches. She might just be in the profession for the money. She might also understand the risk associated with the real estate limited partnership investments and hence would want to be risk averse herself. she should let her clients know the nitty gritty of the partnership and put a disclaimer across to them
