Answer:
Reducing risk
Explanation:
The two ways by which risk can be managed are;
✓ Risk avoidance
✓ risk reduction
risk reduction are activities needed to bring about lower likelihood of risk as well as severity of loss. We can reduce risk through reduction of allocation of our resources to risky situation. An example of reducing risk is in the instance of Financial markets that are making the process of borrowing large amounts of money easier because they simplify the negotiation process between borrowers and lenders.
Answer:
a. Minimizes the amount of input resources without compromising quality.
Explanation:
Efficiency is when productive resources are measured inorder to achieve goal. Task are performed at its best with the least cost and less energy in measuring efficiency
Effectiveness measures goals completeness selected by managers for the organization. It means doing the right thing as expected of the organization.
For China to be efficient, she must minimize the amount of input resources without compromising quality. An efficient manager must perform a task qualitatively with the available resources, least cost and in the best way possible.
Answer:
A Mortgage Backed Bond is:
e. A loan in which security interest in real estate is granted by a borrower.
Explanation:
A mortgage backed bond is tied to or secured on a real estate asset. This implies that the bond is not just a promise to pay a debt obligation but the attached promise is secured or backed by some real assets. There is extra security provided for the bond because specific assets are identified as securities for the bond. Since the bonds are associated with some real assets, the assets can be traded in the event that the debt obligations are not met.
Answer:
The last option is the answer -$141.80
Explanation:
we will use the present value formula for Trish she gets paid every first day of the month therefore she will receive an immediate payment of cash flow which will be added to the present value of future periodic value. Therefore we will find the difference between present values for Trish and Josh which have the same amounts which they'll receive per month.
Given: Trish and josh both receive $450 per month therefore that will be C the monthly future payment that will be received.
They will receive these amounts in a course period of Four years so that will be n = 4 x12=48 because we know that they will receive these payments every month or on a monthly basis for four years. which n represent periodic payments.
i which is the discount rate of 9.5%/12 as we know they will recieve these amounts monthly.
Therefore using the following formulas for present value annuity:
Pv = C[(1-(1+i)^-n)/i] and Pv= C[(1-(1+i)^-n)/i](1+i) then get the difference between these two present values for Trish and Josh.
therefore we will substitute the above values on the above mentioned formula to get the difference:
Pv= 450[(1-(1+9.5%/12)^-48)/(9.5%/12)] - 450[(1-(1+9.5%/12)^-48)/(9.5%/12)](1+9.5%/12) then we compute and get
Pv= $17911.77614 - $18053.5777
Pv = -$141.80 is the difference between the two sets of present values as one has an immediate payment and one doesn't have it.
