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Usimov [2.4K]
4 years ago
6

Scott is taking a 3/4-hour dance class twice a week for 8 weeks. How many hours will Scott have spent in dance class at the end

of the 8 weeks?
answer choices: A=6 hours, B=8 hours, C=12 hours, D=16 hours. PLEASE HELP ME SOLVE THIS. ill have more questions when you answer this thank you... it will cost more pts
Mathematics
1 answer:
Eva8 [605]4 years ago
6 0
One class is 45 minutes.
That's 90 minutes per week.
8 weeks times 90 minutes is 720 minutes.
720 minutes divided by 60 minutes in the hour is 12 hours. Answer C.
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A line has a slope of 9/4 and a y-intercept of -14.
scoray [572]
The answer correct is C.

We can use the linear equation y=mx+b to help. y is the dependent variable, m is slope, x is the independent variable, and b is the y intercept.

In this case, the values of x and y were not given, so we still have y=mx+b. We can substitute 9/4 for m and -14 for b to get y=9/4x-15, which is C.
6 0
3 years ago
How?!? I don't know what to do
Goshia [24]
This is easy, if adding the first number to the second number you get 70.2 then if you want to find the middle number you will have to subtract 32.34 from 70.2 to get 37.86, now add that and 32.34 to check if it gives you 70.2.... When you add them you indeed get 70.2 so your work is correct meaning your middle number is 37.86

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3 0
3 years ago
if you roll a fair 6-sided die 9 times, what is the probability that at least 2 of the rolls come up as a 3 or a 4?
Kay [80]

Using the binomial distribution, it is found that there is a 0.857 = 85.7% probability that at least 2 of the rolls come up as a 3 or a 4.

For each die, there are only two possible outcomes, either a 3 or a 4 is rolled, or it is not. The result of a roll is independent of any other roll, hence, the <em>binomial distribution</em> is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • n is the number of trials.
  • p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem:

  • There are 9 rolls, hence n = 9.
  • Of the six sides, 2 are 3 or 4, hence p = \frac{2}{6} = 0.3333

The desired probability is:

P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2)

In which:

P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

Then

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{9,0}.(0.3333)^{0}.(0.6667)^{9} = 0.026

P(X = 1) = C_{9,1}.(0.3333)^{1}.(0.6667)^{8} = 0.117

Then:

P(X < 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.026 + 0.117 = 0.143

P(X \geq 2) = 1 - P(X < 2) = 1 - 0.143 = 0.857

0.857 = 85.7% probability that at least 2 of the rolls come up as a 3 or a 4.

For more on the binomial distribution, you can check brainly.com/question/24863377

7 0
3 years ago
Folosind metoda inducției matematice sa se demonstreze ca pentru orice n€ N* au loc egalitatile:
anastassius [24]

Answer:

I dont understand

Step-by-step explanation:

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Eva has some money in her wallet. She spent $18.62 buying groceries and had $43.55 left. How much money did she have in her wall
jek_recluse [69]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

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