Answer:
Annual financial disadvantage = $ (669,600)
Explanation:
Relevant cost are future incremental cash costs that arise as a direct consequence of a decision.
The relevant costs of this decision to disconnected includes the following:
- The variable cost of making the product = $19 per unit
- Sales revenue at a price of $25
- Savings in avoidable fixed costs (102,000-72,000) = 30,000
Annual financial advantage
$
Lost contribution $(25-19)× 4,300 units = (85,800)
Saving in fixed cost = <u> 30,000</u>
M<em>onthly net loss </em><em><u> 55,800</u></em>
Annual financial disadvantage
Monthly net loss × 12 months
= (55,800) × 12
= $ (669,600)
Explanation:
The Journal entry is shown below:-
a. Merchandise inventory Dr, $4,700
To accounts payable $4,700
(Being Purchase of merchandise is recorded)
b. Accounts payable Dr, $1,600
To Merchandise inventory $1,600
(Being Return of merchandise is recorded)
c. Accounts payable Dr, $3,100
To Merchandise inventory $31
($3,100 × 1%)
To cash account $3,069
(Being the amount paid)
Answer:
Item Inventory at the lower-of-cost-or-market
#1 $214.50
#2 $240.00
#3 $266.50
#4 $315.00
#5 $422.50
Explanation:
Note: This question is not complete. The complete question is therefore provided before answering the question. See attached pdf file for the complete question.
Also note: See the attached excel file for the determination of the value of inventory by applying the lower-of-cost-or-market rule.
From the attached excel file, we have:
Item Inventory at the lower-of-cost-or-market
#1 $214.50
#2 $240.00
#3 $266.50
#4 $315.00
#5 $422.50
<span class="sg-text sg-text--link sg-text--bold sg-text--link-disabled sg-text--blue-dark">
xlsx
</span>
<span class="sg-text sg-text--link sg-text--bold sg-text--link-disabled sg-text--blue-dark">
pdf
</span>
Answer:
Lapping scheme
Explanation:
Lapping scheme -
It is a fraud practice , which involves the alteration of the accounts received to hide or cover the stolen payments .
This method involve taking the subsequent receivable payments and using them to cover the theft .
<u>And the next receivable is only applied when the previous is unpaid receivable .</u>
Answer:
156.6%
Explanation:
Given:
Cosi Company's Incurred over head for the next period = $830,000
Expected labor hours = 53,000
Cost of labor = $10.00 per hour
Thus,
Total labor cost = 53,000 × $10.00 = $530,000
Now,
the Cosi Company's predetermined overhead rate will be calculated as:
Predetermined overhead rate = Incurred overhead / Total labor cost
on substituting the respective values, we get
Predetermined overhead rate = ( $830,000 / 530,000 ) = 1.566
or
Predetermined overhead rate = 1.566 × 100% = 156.6%