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daser333 [38]
3 years ago
11

Res ipsa loquitur means that the burden of proof A. shifts to the defendant. B. proves the negligence. C. falls on the plaintiff

. D. exceeds reasonable doubt.
Business
2 answers:
Oliga [24]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: A. shifts to the defendant.

Explanation: The plaintiff usually has the burden of proving negligence. If the injury or damage wouldn’t ordinarily have occurred if reasonable care had been exercised, and if the defendant had exclusive control over the cause of the injury, however, (the burden of proof shifts to the defendant. This shift is called res ipsa loquitur), which is Latin for “the thing speaks for itself.” This sometimes can be the case in medical malpractice. PF

MrRa [10]3 years ago
3 0
B I think that is the correct one
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An asset used in a four-year project falls in the five-year MACRS class for tax purposes. The asset has an acquisition cost of $
tia_tia [17]

Answer:

After tax salvage value $1,278,852.8‬

Explanation:

MARCS five years class:

after four years we will have depreicate:

0.2 + 0.32 + 0.192 + 0.1152 = 0,8272‬

(Data from the attached MACRS)

tax basis of the asset:

6,170,000 x ( 1 - 0.8272) = 1.066.176‬

We will be taxed for the difference between the basis and the salvage value:

1,370,000 - 1,066,176 = 303,824‬ taxable gain:

303,824 x 30% = 91,147.2

After tax salvage value:

salvage valeu - income tax expense

1,370,000 - 91,147.2 = 1,278,852.8‬

3 0
3 years ago
You’ve just read the article about Macy’s and Nordstrom’s. Why do you think companies like Macy's have to move to an Omnichannel
uranmaximum [27]

The companies like Macy have to move to an Omnichannel strategy for selling their products because in Omnichannel strategy, products are sold through several distribution channels.

<h3>What is a distribution channels?</h3>

Distribution channel serves as the means by which companies make their products to be available to final consumer.

This channels encompass retailers as well as wholesaler, and in In omni channel, all the distribution channels are linked to each other.

Learn more about distribution channel at;

brainly.com/question/25630633

4 0
2 years ago
If the borrower has a previous foreclosure, can he use FHA to purchase a new home?
snow_tiger [21]

Answer:

Yes he can use FHA

Explanation:

Because FHA Loans are the most forgiving of foreclosures. To qualify for an FHA mortgage loan, you must wait at least three years after the foreclosure. The three year clock starts ticking from the time that the foreclosure case has ended, usually from the date that you prior home was sold in the foreclosure preceeding. If the foreclosure also involved an FHA loan, the three year waiting periods starts from the date that FHA paid the prior lender on its claim

6 0
3 years ago
The main purpose of performance appraisal is to ________.
LUCKY_DIMON [66]

The main purpose of performance appraisal is to furnish feedback to organization members about how they can become more productive and useful to the organization in its quest for quality.

Therefore option C is correct

<h3>What is Performance appraisal?</h3>

  Performance appraisal can be described as the  periodic and systematic evaluation  of the job performance of an employee and its subsequent documentation documented and evaluation in other to provide verifiable evidence to the management of an organization on the strengths and weaknesses of its employees.

    The idea of performance appraisal should be viewed as a career enhancing prospect. Managers should endeavor to appraise their staff truthfully and honestly in other to bring about a healthy working environment.

Learn more about Performance appraisal at brainly.com/question/7595736

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4 0
1 year ago
Five hundred units of good x are currently bought and sold. The marginal buyer is willing to pay $40 for the 500th unit, and the
dimaraw [331]

Answer:

D : All options are correct

Explanation:

- The marginal buyer is the essence of demand curve while marginal seller is essence of supply curve.

- @ Q = 500 units,    Selling Price is set at SP = $35

- @ Q = 500 units,    Buying Price is set at BP = $40

- Since, SP ≠ BP our equilibrium price would be $ 37.5 assuming the price elasticity of demand and supply are equal. In any case the equilibrium price would lie in between [ 35 , 40 ] such that to prevent a shortage of units in near future.

- Moreover, if the seller decides to sell at price $35 then he must sell goods greater than 500 units to reach the equilibrium profits. However, it could also lead to excess of units or surplus.

- We see that from selling the goods at SP = $35 while the buyer is willing to pay BP = $40 for 500 goods, the seller would be under-profiting and would be earning $5*500 = $2,500 less than he would at equilibrium price of $40 and selling units greater than 500. Hence, 500 goods is not an efficient quantity of goods.

6 0
3 years ago
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