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nevsk [136]
3 years ago
11

Number of balloons

Mathematics
2 answers:
N76 [4]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

23

Step-by-step explanation:

Vedmedyk [2.9K]3 years ago
4 0
23 is the mode ??!!!
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What is the product of 6x – y and 2x – y + 2?
amid [387]

Answer:

8x−2y+2 this?

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How would you solve a problem in time travel if you you departing at 1:10 PM EST and arriving at 8:29 PM PST.
In-s [12.5K]

Answer:

you would figure out the time in either pst or est and find out the time

Step-by-step explanation:

Example=EST

1:10 PM

PST:8:29 PM=11:29PM

SO time spent= 3 hours

5 0
4 years ago
The perimeters of similar triangles are in the same ratio as the corresponding sides
wariber [46]

Answer:

Always

Step-by-step explanation:

Suppose you have triangle ABC with side lengths a, b, c. Suppose that is similar to triangle DEF with side lengths d, e, f.

Now, let k be the ratio of corresponding sides ...

  k = d/a

Because the same factor applies to all sides, we also have ...

  k = e/b = f/c

That is, if we multiply by the denominators of each of these fractions, we get ...

  • d = a·k
  • e =b·k
  • f = c·k

The perimeter of ΔABC is ...

   perimeter(ABC) = a + b + c

The perimeter of ΔDEF is ...

  perimeter(DEF) = d + e + f = a·k + b·k + c·k

  perimeter(DEF) = k(a + b + c) = k·perimeter(ABC)

  k = perimeter(DEF)/perimeter(ABC)

That is, the perimeters are in the same ratio as corresponding sides.

3 0
3 years ago
Please help i am so confused
harkovskaia [24]

Answer:

q\geq -81

Step-by-step explanation:

First, begin by multiplying \frac{q}{27} \\ by its reciprocal.

To do this, flip the fraction upside-down.

The resulting equation looks like this: \frac{27}{1} *\frac{q}{27}

Cancel out the two 27's and you are left with \frac{q}{1} , which you can simplify to q.

Next, multiply -3 by \frac{27}{1} . Remember, what you do on one side, you must do on the other.

Your equation should look like this:

q\geq -81

The final answer is q\geq -81 .

Have a nice day!

3 0
3 years ago
Please help me with the answer ASAP
AleksandrR [38]

Answer:

g(x) is greater

Step-by-step explanation:

it is greater because when mulitplying the function g and x you get a higher number than you would with f(x)

hope that helps!!

5 0
3 years ago
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