<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=2x%20%7B%7D%5E%7B2%7D%20%20%2B%204x%20-%2021%20%3D%200" id="TexFormula1" title="2x {}^{2} + 4

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Yuliya22 [10]

3 years ago

x - 21 = 0" alt="2x {}^{2} + 4x - 21 = 0" align="absmiddle" class="latex-formula">

Mathematics

1 answer:

Ugo [173]3 years ago

7 0

The answer should be 21/8 hope it helps

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PLEASE HELPPPP!

nirvana33 [79]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

A research study uses 800 men under the age of 55. Suppose that 30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an incr

ss7ja [257]

Answer:

a) There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

b) There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

Step-by-step explanation:

There are only two possible outcomes: Either the men has the chromosome, or he hasn't. So we use the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And $\pi$ is the probability of X happening.

In this problem, we have that:

30% carry a marker on the male chromosome that indicates an increased risk for high blood pressure, so $\pi = 0.30$

(a) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that exactly 1 man has the marker?

10 men, so $n = 10$

We want to find P(X = 1). So:

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.\pi^{x}.(1-\pi)^{n-x}$

$P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.30)^{1}.(0.7)^{9} = 0.1211$

There is a 12.11% probability that exactly 1 man has the marker.

(b) If 10 men are selected randomly and tested for the marker, what is the probability that more than 1 has the marker?

That is $P(X > 1)$

We have that:

$P(X \leq 1) + P(X > 1) = 1$

$P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1)$

We also have that:

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)$

$P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.30)^{0}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.0282$

$P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.0282 + 0.1211 = 0.1493$

Finally

$P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X \leq 1) = 1 - 0.1493 = 0.8507$

There is a 85.07% probability that more than 1 has the marker.

3 0

3 years ago

If m<22 =122 what is m<5

Ludmilka [50]

Answer:

m = -5

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1 :

Pulling out like terms/ factors

Add 5 to both sides of the equation :

-m = 5

Multiply both sides of the equation by (-1) : m = -5

<em><u>Hope this helps.</u></em>

5 0

3 years ago

The function that represents the amount of caffeine in milligrams remaining

fredd [130]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The function that represents the amount of caffeine, in milligrams, remaining in a body after drinking two mountain dew sodas is given by f(t) = 110(0.8855)^t, where t is time in hours.

4 0

4 years ago

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Which of the functions below have period 2pi? Check all that apply. A. y = tan x B. y = sec x C. y = cot x D. y = csc x

Colt1911 [192]

Answer:

Option B and D are correct that is $y=secx$ and $y=cscx$ respectively.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have been given four functions:

CaseA:

$y=tanx$

$\text{Period oftanx is} \pi$

Hence, A is correct.

CaseB:

$y=secx$

$\text{Period of secx is} 2\pi$

Hence, B is correct.

CaseC:

$y=cotx$

$\text{Period of cotx is} \pi$

Hence, C is not correct.

CaseD:

$y=cscx$

$\text{Period of cscx is} 2\pi$

Hence, D is correct.

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers