Not sure why such an old question is showing up on my feed...
Anyway, let

and

. Then we want to find the exact value of

.
Use the angle difference identity:

and right away we find

. By the Pythagorean theorem, we also find

. (Actually, this could potentially be negative, but let's assume all angles are in the first quadrant for convenience.)
Meanwhile, if

, then (by Pythagorean theorem)

, so

. And from this,

.
So,
Answer:
0
Step-by-step explanation:
2a+ 2/a =4
Multiply each side by a to clear the fraction
a( 2a+ 2/a) =4*a
Distribute
2a^2 +2 = 4a
Subtract 4a from each side
2a^2 -4a +2 = 4a-4a
2a^2 -4a +2 =0
Divide by 2
2/2 a^2 -4a/2 +2/2 =0/2
a^2 -2a +1=0
Factor
(a-1) (a-1) =0
Using the zero product property
a=1
2a^2 -2/a^2
2(1)^2 -2/1^2
2-2
0
Answer:
<h2>

</h2>
Step-by-step explanation:
g(x) = x² - 2x - 6
h(x) = 2x² - 5x + 2
To find (h-g) (-2) we must first find h - g(x)
To find h - g(x) subtract g(x) from h(x)
We have
<h3>

</h3><h3>

</h3>
To find (h-g) (-2) substitute the value of x that's - 2 into (h - g)(x) that's replace every x in (h - g)(x) by - 2
That's
<h3>

</h3>
We have the final answer as
<h3>

</h3>
Hope this helps you
Answer:
B
Step-by-step explanation:
Brainliest please, thanks :)
Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:
