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sergiy2304 [10]
3 years ago
6

What is the coupon rate for a bond with 3 years until maturity, a price of $1,053.46, and a yield to maturity of 6%? Interest is

paid annually.
Business
1 answer:
9966 [12]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Coupon rate is 8%

Explanation:

We can ascertain the coupon rate by first of all determine the amount of coupon with pmt excel function below:

=pmt(rate,nper,-pv,fv)

rate is yield to maturity of 6%

nper is the number of coupons before maturity i.e 3 annual coupons in three years

pv is the current market price of $1,053.46

fv is the par value of $1,000

=pmt(6%,3,-1053.46,1000)=80

Coupon rate=pmt/face value=80/1000=8%

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A decline in the real GDP that occurs for at least two or more quarters is called a _______. a. recession c. recovery b. depress
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A decline in the real GDP that occurs for at least two or more quarters is called a depression. The correct option among all the options that are given in the question is option "b". There is a very thin line of difference between recession and depression. when the real GDP falls for a repeated number of periods, then it is depression.
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Louise purchased a disability policy when her salary was $4,000 a month. Later, she lost that job and her salary was reduced to
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$3,500

Explanation:

This is because every Health and Disability Income Policy express the conditions and provisions for continuation of the contract on the new income level.

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Suppose a local hardware store has explicit costs of $2 million per year and implicit costs of $44,000 per year. If the store ea
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Answer: $94,000

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3 years ago
Charleston Company has two departments (Processing and Packaging) and uses a job-order costing system. Charleston applies overhe
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Answer:

$1.236= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate

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3 0
3 years ago
Computing second-year depreciation and accumulated depreciationAt the beginning of 2016, Air Asia purchased a used airplane at a
Bezzdna [24]

Answer:

1. a.$4,375,000

  b. $7,500,000

 c. $9,800,000

2. $8,750,000

  $18,200,000

  $17,500,000

Explanation:

1. The computation of the depreciation expense for the second year is presented  below:

a) Straight-line method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (useful life)

= ($40,000,000  - $5,000,000) ÷ (8 years)

= ($35,000,000) ÷ (8 years)  

= $4,375,000

In this method, the depreciation is same for all the remaining useful life

(b) Double-declining balance method:

First we have to find the depreciation rate which is shown below:

= One ÷ useful life

= 1 ÷ 8

= 12.5%

Now the rate is double So, 25%

In year 1, the original cost is $40,000,000 so the depreciation is $10,000,000 after applying the 25% depreciation rate

And, in year 2, the $30,000,000 × 25% = $7,500,000

(c) Units-of-production method:

= (Purchase value of airplane - residual value) ÷ (estimated miles)  

= ($40,000,000  - $5,000,000) ÷ ($5,000,000 miles)

= ($35,000,000) ÷ ($5,000,000 miles)  

= $7 per miles

In first year, it would be

= Miles in first year × depreciation per miles

= 1,200,000 miles × $7

= $8,400,000

Now for the second year, it would be  

= Miles in second year × depreciation per miles

= 1,400,000 miles × $7

= $9,800,000

2. The calculation of the accumulated depreciation balance would be

Straight line method:

= $4,375,000 + $4,375,000

= $8,750,000

Double-declining balance method:

= $10,000,000 + $7,500,000

= $17,500,000

Units-of-production method:

= $8,400,000 + $9,800,000

=  $18,200,000

4 0
3 years ago
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