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3 years ago

I don't now what this is can any one help me

Mathematics

2 answers:

Nina [5.8K]3 years ago

7 0

So for the first one, you'll need to write out all the factors of both 30 and 16.
(30--1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, 30)
(16--1, 2, 4, 8, 16)
The biggest number that goes into both 30 and 16 is 2.

For the second kne, its the same thing.
(48--1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 16, 24, 48)
(18--1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18)
The biggest number that can go into both 48 and 18 is 6.

Hope this all helps!!

ASHA 777 [7]3 years ago

3 0

Forma The first numbers The common factores are 1 and 2 and forma the ladt numbers is 1,2,3, and 6 !!¡!

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3 years ago

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$\sf y=50\left(1.8\right)^{x}$

=================================

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2 years ago

Rockwell hardness of pins of a certain type is known to have a mean value of 50 and a standard deviation of 1.2.a. If the distri

zalisa [80]

Answer:

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062$

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0$

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

The mean value is $\mu = 50$

The standard deviation is $\sigma = 1.2$

Considering question a

The sample size is n = 9

Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as

$\sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }$

=> $\sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{9} }$

=> $\sigma_x = 0.4$

Generally the probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 9 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_{x}} \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.4 } )$

$\frac{\= X -\mu}{\sigma } = Z (The \ standardized \ value\ of \ \= X )$

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( Z \ge 2.5 )$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1- P( Z < 2.5 )$

From the z table the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to 2.5 is

$P( Z < 2.5 ) = 0.99379$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) =1-0.99379$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) =0.0062$

Considering question b

The sample size is n = 40

Generally the standard error of the mean is mathematically represented as

$\sigma_x = \frac{\sigma }{\sqrt{n} }$

=> $\sigma_x = \frac{ 1.2 }{\sqrt{40} }$

=> $\sigma_x = 0.1897$

Generally the (approximate) probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 40 pins is at least 51 is mathematically represented as

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P( \frac{\= X - \mu }{\sigma_x} \ge \frac{51 - 50 }{0.1897 } )$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) = P(Z \ge 5.2715 )$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- P(Z < 5.2715 )$

From the z table the area under the normal curve to the left corresponding to 5.2715 and

=> $P(Z < 5.2715 ) = 1$

$P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 1- 1$

=> $P(\= X \ge 51 ) = 0$

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2 years ago