Answer:
A. The seller would be primarily liable.
Explanation:
Subject to basis is a form of home buying options in real estate. It is a situation where the buyer takes over existing loan of a seller and make commitment to seller to continue repaying the loan to the lender.
Though the buyer will taken over the loan from the seller and make repayment to the lender, there is no legal obligation on buyer`s part that makes him/her liable to the lender. The seller still remain liable despite the the taking over. So option A is right while B to D is wrong because it`s only the seller that is primarily liable to the lender.
To maximize profits, a firm should continue to increase production of a good until marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost.
According to the cost-benefit analysis, a company should continue to increase production until marginal revenue is equal to marginal cost. A manager maximizes profit when the value of the last unit of product (marginal revenue) equals the cost of producing the last unit of production (marginal cost)
What Is Marginal Revenue?
Marginal revenue is the increase in revenue that results from the sale of one additional unit of output.
What Is Marginal Cost?
In economics, the marginal cost is the change in total production cost that comes from making or producing one additional unit.
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Answer:
$7.8
Explanation:
Variable costs = $504,000
Fixed costs = $392,000
Number of units produced = 84,000
Shipping charges = $4,500
Therefore, the variable cost per unit is calculated as follows:
= Variable costs ÷ Number of units produced
= $504,000 ÷ 84,000
= $6 per unit
Incremental fixed cost per unit (For 2,500):
= Shipping cost ÷ 2,500
= $4,500 ÷ 2,500
= $1.8 per unit
Therefore, the unit sales price will be the sum total of variable cost per unit and incremental fixed cost per unit for the shipping charges.
BEP (in sales price per unit):
= Variable cost per unit + incremental fixed cost per unit
= $6 + $1.8
= $7.8
Answer:
Payback Period = 4 Years
Net Present value = $15692
Internal Rate of Return = 17.82%
Modified Internal Rate of Return = 14.20%
Explanation:
Payback Period = (Initial Investment / Net Cash inflows)
Payback Period = $61500/15000 = 4 Years
Net Present value using PVIF table value at 11% over the period and discount them given cash flows gives us discounted cash flows.
Year CF PVIF 11%,n Discounted CF
0 -61500 1.000 (61,500)
1 15000 0.901 13,514
2 15000 0.812 12,174
3 15000 0.731 10,968
4 15000 0.659 9,881
5 15000 0.593 8,902
6 15000 0.535 8,020
7 15000 0.482 7,225
8 15000 0.434 6,509
Summing up the discounted Cash flows gives us the Net Present value of $15692
Internal Rate of Return:
Using Excel Function IRR @ 17.82% applying it on cash flows gives the rate where Present value of Cash flows is Zero.
Modified Internal Rate of Return:
Modified internal rate of return is at the level of 14.20% as it lower than IRR because it assume positive cash flows invested at cost of capital.
Answer:
plot of risk-return combinations available by varying portfolio allocation between a risk-free rate and a risky portfolio
Explanation:
The capital allocation line (CAL) is called as the capital market line tha developed on the graph for all the expected combinations related to the risk-free and risk assets. In this, the graph presented the return investor that expected earn by assuming the particular level of risk along with the investment
Therefore the first option is correct
