Answer: C
I hope this helped you
Answer:
40:1 is the ratio of the magenta phenolphthalein concentration to the colorless phenolphthalein concentration.
Explanation:
To calculate the pH of acidic buffer, we use the equation given by Henderson Hasselbalch:
![pH=pK_a+\log(\frac{[salt]}{[acid]})](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=pH%3DpK_a%2B%5Clog%28%5Cfrac%7B%5Bsalt%5D%7D%7B%5Bacid%5D%7D%29)
![pH=pK_a+\log(\frac{[magenta(Php)]}{[Php]})](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=pH%3DpK_a%2B%5Clog%28%5Cfrac%7B%5Bmagenta%28Php%29%5D%7D%7B%5BPhp%5D%7D%29)
We are given:
= negative logarithm of acid dissociation constant of phenolphthalein = 9.40
= concentration of magenta phenolphthalein
= concentration of colorless phenolphthalein
pH = 11
Putting values in above equation, we get:
![11=9.40+\log(\frac{[magenta(Php)]}{[Php]})](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=11%3D9.40%2B%5Clog%28%5Cfrac%7B%5Bmagenta%28Php%29%5D%7D%7B%5BPhp%5D%7D%29)
![\log(\frac{[magenta(Php)]}{[Php]})=11-9.40=1.6](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Clog%28%5Cfrac%7B%5Bmagenta%28Php%29%5D%7D%7B%5BPhp%5D%7D%29%3D11-9.40%3D1.6)
![\frac{[magenta(Php)]}{[Php]}=10^{1.6}=39.81 :1 \approx 40:1](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B%5Bmagenta%28Php%29%5D%7D%7B%5BPhp%5D%7D%3D10%5E%7B1.6%7D%3D39.81%20%3A1%20%5Capprox%2040%3A1)
40:1 is the ratio of the magenta phenolphthalein concentration to the colorless phenolphthalein concentration.
D. Diffusion is a passive movement. Passive meaning it does not require energy, so ATP