Answer:
$60,000
Explanation:
Hansen's annual salary allowance= 30,000
Hernandez's annual salary allowance= 10,000
annual interest allowance of Hensen= 0.1 × 50,000= 5000
annual interest allowance of Hernandez= 0.1 × 50,000= 5000
Remaining balance=100000- 5000-5000-30000-10000= 50000
Share of each partner from remaining balance= 25000
Hensen's income= 25,000+ 5000+ 30000= 60,000
Answer:
2016 = $3.36
2017 = $4.59
Explanation:
The solution of total assets turnover is shown below:-
Particulars 2016 2017
Total assets in the beginning $1,686,000 $1,800,000
Total assets at the end $1,800,000 $1,982,000
Average assets $1,743,000 $1,891,000
(Assets in the beginning + Assets at end) ÷ 2
Sales revenue $5,856,480 $8,679,690
Total assets turnover $3.36 $4.59
(Sales revenue ÷ Average Total assets)
Answer:
Permanent partial disability
<h3>
What is permanent partial Disability?</h3>
- Permanent Partial Disability — a worker's compensation disability level in which the injured employee is still able to work but not with the skill and efficiency demonstrated prior to the injury.
- As a result, the earning capability of the worker is affected.
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The reserve ratio is the portion of the money of the depositor that should be available in cash in the bank. This amount should only be in the bank and not used for all other purposes. Hence, the balance money can be used for the bank operations, increasing the supply.
In this item, we are given that the reserve ratio is only 5%. This means that, 95% of the money can be used by the bank for its operation. This amount can be calculated by multiplying the amount deposited by the decimal equivalent of 95%. That is,
= ($1000)(0.95)
= $950
Therefore, the money supply will increase by $950.
The proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is 0%.
Using this formula
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=[(Wa-RFR )×SDB²]-[(Wb-RFR)×SDA×SDB×CC] ÷ [(Wa-RFR )×SDB²+(Wb-RFR)SDA²]- [(Wa-RFR +Wb-RFR )×SDA×SDB×CC]
Where:
Stock A Expected Return (Wa) =16%
Stock A Standard Deviation (SDA)= 18.0%
Stock B Expected Return (Wb)= 12%
Stock B Standard Deviation(SDB) = 3%
Correlation Coefficient for Stock A and B (CC) = 0.50
Risk Free rate of return(RFR) = 10%
Let plug in the formula
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=[(.16-.10)×.03²]-[(.12-.10)×.18×.03×0.50]÷ [(.16-.10 )×.03²+(.12-.10)×.18²]- [(.16-.10 +.12-.10 )×.18×.03×0.50]
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=(0.000054-0.000054)÷(0.000702-0.000216)
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=0÷0.000486×100%
Stock A optimal risky portfolio=0%
Inconclusion the proportion of the optimal risky portfolio that should be invested in stock A is 0%.
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