Answer and Explanation:
a. The computation is shown below;
Cash bonus after tax is ($3,000 × (1 - 0.24) $2,280
And, non taxable fringe benefit is $2,300
So here he should use the nontaxable fringe benefit
b. Yes answer would be changed
Cash bonus after tax is ($3,000 × (1 - 0.12) $2,640
And, non taxable fringe benefit is $2,300
hence, the same is to be considered
Answer:
Instructions are listed below.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
A friend of Mr. Richards recently won a law suit for $30 million. They can either take the payments over 10 years or settle today for cash of $25 million. Mr. Richard is optimistic that he can earn a 6% return on the money and that they should settle for $25 million today and he will invest it for them.
First, we need to find the present value of the 30 million.
To do that we need to calculate the final value.
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i
A= annual deposit
FV= {3,000,000*[(1.06^10)-1]}/0.06= 39,542,385
PV= FV/(1+i)^n= 39,542,385/1.06^10= 22,080,261
B) Now we know that the present value of option B is higher. One dollar today is better than one dollar tomorrow. It is better to receive the money now to invest it.
You have to read very carefully to make sure you dont miss any mistakes
This relates to liability of business owners. When a company has unlimited liability and starts losing money, the owners can be personally liable for losses meaning their home and personal assets could be lost. Limited liability means they can only lose the amount that they invested in the company and none of their personal assets.
