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koban [17]
3 years ago
12

I need help!! Please explain so I can learn

Mathematics
2 answers:
saveliy_v [14]3 years ago
8 0
What is the question asking?
kompoz [17]3 years ago
8 0
The equation you need is y=mx+b (slope-intercept form). Since the y-intercept, b, is 0 (x=0 when y=0) the remaining part is y=mx. M is your slope/rate of change. It can be expressed as rise over run (y over x) of one ordered pair- so, -3/1 -> -3. Your equation is y= -3x
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PLS HELP ASAP ILL GIVE BRAINLKEST THANKS
Arisa [49]

Answer:

(4,4)

Step-by-step explanation:

hope this help

4 0
3 years ago
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The parallelogram shown represents a map of the boundaries of a natural preserve. Walking trails run from points A to C and from
Citrus2011 [14]

y+2 = 3y-4 =

y+6 = 3y

6 =2y

y = 3


y+2 = 3+2 = 5

3y-4 = 3(3)-4 = 5

 5+5 =10


2y-3 = 2(3) - 3 = 3

3+3 = 6


10+6 = 16 miles

answer is C

4 0
4 years ago
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Answer the following questions
EleoNora [17]
1. In a week there are 7 days. So your andwer would be 21/10. The decimal is 2.1.
3 0
3 years ago
7.4 Practice
pickupchik [31]

The simulation of the medicine and the bowler hat are illustrations of probability

  • The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767
  • The probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0
  • The probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on at least two</h3>

From the question,

  • Numbers 1 to 7 represents the medicine being effective
  • 0, 8 and 9 represents the medicine not being effective

From the simulation, 23 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on at least two

So, the probability is:

p = 23/30

p = 0.767

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on at least two is 0.767

<h3>The probability that the medicine is effective on none</h3>

From the simulation, 0 of the 30 randomly generated numbers show that the medicine is effective on none

So, the probability is:

p = 0/30

p = 0

Hence, the probability that the medicine is effective on none is 0

<h3>The probability a bowler hits a headpin</h3>

The probability of hitting a headpin is:

p = 90%

The probability a bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is:

P(x) = nCx * p^x * (1 - p)^(n - x)

So, we have:

P(4) = 5C4 * (90%)^4 * (1 - 90%)^1

P(4) = 0.3281

Hence, the probability that the bowler hits a headpin 4 out of 5 times is 0.3281

Read more about probabilities at:

brainly.com/question/25870256

8 0
2 years ago
Help me out please!!!!!!!
SashulF [63]
This is a rule for right triangle pythagorean triples, so it is B
4 0
4 years ago
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