Answer:
a. $10,783.68
b. $10,510.36 semi annual compounding
Explanation:
a. This question requires the present value of $26,700 given 8 years and compounded annually at 12%.
Present Value = 
Present Value = 
Present Value = $10,783.68
He would need to invest $10,783.68 today.
b. This is a duplicate of question 1 but I will solve it assuming semi-annual compounding just in case.
12% per annum would become = 12/2 = 6% per semi annum
Number of periods would become = 8 * 2 = 16 periods
Present Value =
Present Value = 
Present Value = $10,510.36
He would need to invest $10,510.36 today.
Administrative restructuring; done at managerial level for effective decision making and delegation of power down the order.
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Explanation:
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According to the narration given in the above statement the general manager is of the view that too much layer of manager will hamper the decision making and effective delegation of work.
So, after a detailed study of manager’s role and responsibility at the level he decided to downsize the structure from 10 managers to 3 managers who will report to him for making effective decisions.
He has delegated power to the new managers and by doing so it has reduced the burden of the Joe. By doing this the organisation objectives and goals can be met at the targeted time.
Answer:
$88,000
Explanation:
Calculation to determine What amount of compensation should Argon report in Logan's Form W-2 for year 2
First step is to determine the bargain element
Bargain Element=$25 per share-$10per share
Bargain Element=$15 per share
Now let determine the amount of compensation
Using this formula
Compensation=Salary earned+Taded stock+(Shares of publicly traded stock*Bargain element)
Let plug in the formula
Compensation=$60,000+$13,000+($100 shares*$15 per share)
Compensation=$60,000+$13,000+$15,000
Compensation=$88,000
Therefore the amount of compensation that Argon should report in Logan's Form W-2 for year 2 $88,000
Answer:
The rate of return on the risky asset is 16% and on treasury bill is 6% and we need a return of (1100-1,000)/1000= 10% or 0.1
If we think of x as the percentage investment in risky asset and 1-x as the investment in non risky asset we can mathematically find what proportion we need to invest in each asset to get this return.
16x+ 6(1-x)=10
16x+6-6x=10
10x=4
x=4/10
x= 0.4
This equation tells us that we should invest 40% in risky assets and 1-x which is 60% in treasury bills. We can test our answer by putting these values and see if the return is 10 %
(0.4*16)+(0.6*6)= Rate of return
Rate of return=10%
10% of 1000 = 100
100+1000=$1100
Explanation:
Answer:
The correct answer is option c.
Explanation:
An oligopoly market is a form of imperfect competition where there are a few firms. These firms can produce identical or differentiated products. Because of a few firms in the market, there is a high degree of competition in the market.
These firms are interdependent such that the economic decisions of a firm affect its rivals. So each firm has to consider the reaction of its rivals before making decisions.
The firms are price makers and face a downward-sloping demand curve.
