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Yakvenalex [24]

3 years ago

7

If the allocation base in the pre-determined overhead rate does not drive overhead costs, it will nevertheless provide reasonabl

y accurate unit product costs because of the averaging process. A. True B. False

1 answer:

navik [9.2K]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

B. False

Explanation:

The production costs are the cost that is involved in the formation of a product and they include the direct labor and material and the consumer production supplies and the factory overhead.

The production cost can also be also to be considered to be the cost of the labor that is delivered to a service to the consumer. The overhead cost includes the insurance, the interest, and the legal fees, and does not involve an averaging process.

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Suspect Corp. issued a bond with a maturity of 30 years and a semiannual coupon rate of 6 percent 4 years ago. The bond currentl

kifflom [539]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation of each point is shown below:-

But before that we need to do the following calculations

First Issue of Bonds:

Face Value = $45,000,000

Market Value = 95% × $45,000,000

= $42,750,000

Annual Coupon Rate = 6%

Semiannual Coupon Rate = 3%

= 3% × $45,000,000

= $1,350,000

Time to Maturity = 26 years

Semiannual Period to Maturity = 52

Let semiannual YTM be i%

$42,750,000 = $1,350,000 × PVIFA(i%, 52) + $45,000,000 × PVIF(i%, 52)

N = 52

PV = -42750000

PMT = 1350000

FV = 45000000

I = 3.20%

Semiannual YTM = 3.20%

Annual YTM = 2 × 3.20%

Annual YTM = 6.40%

Before-tax Cost of Debt = 6.40%

After-tax Cost of Debt = 6.40% × (1 - 0.40)

= 3.84%

Second Issue of Bonds:

Face Value = $50,000,000

Market Value = 54% × $50,000,000

= $27,000,000

Time to Maturity = 15 years

Semiannual Period to Maturity = 30

Let semiannual YTM be i%

$27,000,000 = $50,000,000 × PVIF(i%, 30)

Using a financial calculator:

N = 30

PV = -27000000

PMT = 0

FV = 50000000

I = 2.075%

Semiannual YTM = 2.075%

Annual YTM = 2 × 2.075%

= 4.15%

Before-tax Cost of Debt = 4.15%

After-tax Cost of Debt = 4.15% × (1 - 0.40)

= 2.49%

a. The total book value of debt is

Total Book Value of Debt = $45,000,000 + $50,000,000

= $95,000,000

b. The total market value of debt is

Total Market Value of Debt = $42,750,000 + $27,000,000

= $69,750,000

c. The estimate of the aftertax cost of debt is

Weight of first Issue of Debt is

= $42,750,000 ÷ $69,750,000

= 0.6129

Weight of second issue of Debt

= $27,000,000 ÷ $69,750,000

= 0.3871

So,

Estimated After-tax Cost of Debt is

= 0.6129 × 3.84% + 0.3871 × 2.49%

= 3.32%

6 0

2 years ago

In their relationship, neither bette nor sam wants to take control or make decisions. this type of relationship is known as a co

yKpoI14uk [10]

<span>Simply put ,this is a Submissive Symmetrical Relationship. This type of relationship happens when there are two partners but neither wants or is able to take complete control or make decisions. In this scenario, that is exactly what Sam and Bette are doing.</span>

5 0

3 years ago

There are zero coupon bonds outstanding that have a YTM of 5.97 percent and mature in 19 years. The bonds have a par value of $1

Fed [463]

Answer:

market price = $1,104.20

Explanation:

yield to maturity of zero coupon bonds = (face value / market price)¹/ⁿ - 1

YTM = 5.97%
n = 19 x 2 = 38
face value = $10,000

(face value / market price)¹/ⁿ = YTM + 1

face value / market price = (YTM + 1)ⁿ

market price = face value / (YTM + 1)ⁿ

market price = $10,000 / 1.0597³⁸ = $10,000 / 9.0563 = $1,104.20

8 0

3 years ago

Gershwin Wallcovering Inc. shipped the wrong shade of paint to a customer. The customer agreed to keep the paint upon being offe

ratelena [41]

Answer:

B) Sales discounts.

Explanation:

Sales Discount is a contra revenue account which is adjusted in the sales to calculate the net sales value.

As the following transaction is already been recorded at the time of sale

Dr. Account receivable xxxx

Cr. Sales xxxx

Sales account will not be debited to adjust the transaction. we will record this transaction in sales discount account which will ultimately adjusted.

4 0

3 years ago

Under purchasing power parity, the future spot exchange rate is a function of the initial spot rate in equilibrium and a. the in

kirza4 [7]

Answer:

The correct answer is a) the inflation differential.

Explanation:

Inflation differential is the difference we can find between two countries in exchange rates. The inflation differential can produce losses for the company if, in the country you want to buy, there is a big difference in your exchange rate, since this raises the prices of the product. As a result, the company has a loss; it can also happen if It is a case of exports.

If the inflation differential is maintained for an extended period, it can cause loss of competitiveness, since the profit margin of the products would be affected.

<em>I hope this information can help you.</em>

6 0

3 years ago