Answer:
Debt equity ratio = 1.01
Explanation:
given data
WACC = 11.2 percent
cost of equity = 16.8 percent
pretax cost of debt = 8.7 percent
tax rate = 35 percent
to find out
What does the debt-equity ratio need to be for the firm to achieve its target WACC
solution
we get here WACC that is express as
WACC = Wd × Rd × (1-t) + We × Ke ..................1
here Wd is weight of debit and t is tax rate and Ke is cost of equity and
Wd + We = 1
so We = 1 - Wd
put value in equation 1
WACC = Wd × Rd × (1-t) + We × Ke
11.20% = Wd × 8.70% ×(1-35%) + (1-Wd) × 16.80%
solve and we get
Wd = 0.5025
so We will be
We = 1 - 0.5025
We = 0.4975
and
Debt equity ratio will be
Debt equity ratio = 
Debt equity ratio = 1.01
Answer:
The best answer to the question: How should the parties proceed, when talking about the buying of a house in which the buyer has already entered a contract with the seller of the property, before having an inspection performed on it, to find out that there are some issues with the property itself, would be, C: The fixes do not become part of the sales agreement.
Explanation:
To begin with, the buyer should have had the inspection done before entering an agreement, and much more signing the contract. Now that the contract is in place, and since the buyer did not have the inspection done beforehand, the terms that would have made the seller responsible for making fixes on the damaged property are not part of the contract. The buyer signed the contract without these adendums and therefore, it is no longer the seller´s responsibility, as part of the original contract, to take care of them. The buyer must abide by the original contract because he did not insist on having any such provisions placed on it that would have made the seller responsible for the fixes.
Answer: According to Ian Redpath and Greg Urban, the threshold amount required for conclusively stating whether a substantial basis adjustment is mandatory is $250,000. The amount required is $250,000 in order for one to know whether they are in need for a substantial basis reduction or maybe not. It's required when the amount indeed exceeds $250,000.
Answer: Transaction exposure
Explanation:
Transaction exposure, is a form of foreign exchange risk that is faced by the organizations that take part in international trade. It occurs when the fluctuation in exchange rate change a contracts value before it is settled.
It is concerned with the effect of exchange rate changes on individual transactions, most of which are short-term affairs that will be executed within a few weeks or months.
