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BabaBlast [244]
3 years ago
7

Need help with this question please​

Mathematics
2 answers:
irina [24]3 years ago
7 0
You would do KCF so the answer would be 24/6 or 4
PilotLPTM [1.2K]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

9/16 using KFC

Step-by-step explanation:

if need a better explanation just ask

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If f(x) = x^3 – 10x^2 + 29x – 30 and f(6) = 0, then find all<br> of the zeros of f(x) algebraically.
tino4ka555 [31]
Step 1: 1

(((x3) - (2•5x2)) + 29x) - 30 = 0

Step 2 2.1 x3-10x2+29x-30 is not a perfect cube

Step 3 Factoring: x3-10x2+29x-30

Thoughtfully split the expression at hand into groups, each group having two terms :

Group 1: 29x-30
Group 2: -10x2+x3

Pull out from each group separately :

Group 1: (29x-30) • (1)
Group 2: (x-10) • (x2)

7 0
2 years ago
Please solve my difficult question fast​
kicyunya [14]

The 3 angles form the straight line AB. A straight line equals 180 degrees.

The 3 angles when added together need to equal 180:

2x + 65 + (x + 65) = 180

Simplify by combining like terms:

3x + 130 = 180

Subtract 130 from both sides

3x = 50

Divide both sides by 3

X = 50/3

X = 16 2/3 (16.66667 as a repeating decimal)

Now you have x if you need to solve all the angles replace x with its value and sole:

2x = 2(16 2/3) = 33 1/3

X + 65 = 16 2/3 + 65 = 81 2/3

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Pls help will give Brainliest if right, Don’t guess
soldier1979 [14.2K]
It’s a every minute he scores one more point
7 0
3 years ago
Is it the one I have selected or the bottom one? I feel like a trick question
dangina [55]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

It's number 5 if A player a value their piece as 25%, than player B will to because it was divide fair.

and number 3 player A must value their piece as exactly 25%

6 0
3 years ago
Fill in the blanks below to make a true statement. In a binomial experiment with n trials and probability of success p, if np (1
Sergeu [11.5K]

Answer:

\mu_{x}=np

\sigma^2_{X}=np(1-p)

Step-by-step explanation:

∵ When x is a random variable having distribution B(n, p), then for sufficiently large value of n, the following random variable has a standard normal distribution,

\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\sim N(0,1)

Where,

\mu=np

\sigma^2=np(1-p)

Here the variable X has a binomial distribution,

Such that, np (1 - p) ≥ 10 ⇒ n is sufficiently large.

Where, n is the total numbers of trials, p is success in each trials,

So, the mean of variable X is,

\mu_{X} = np

And, variance of variable X is,

\sigma^2{X}=np(1-p)

3 0
3 years ago
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