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mezya [45]
3 years ago
12

In the system of equations below, which variable would it be easiest to solve for? x + 4 y = 14. 3 x + 2 y = 12 The easiest to s

olve for is x in the first equation. The easiest to solve for is y in the first equation. The easiest to solve for is x in the second equation. The easiest to solve for is y in the second equation.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Murljashka [212]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

<h2>The easiest to solve for is x in the first equation</h2>

Step-by-step explanation:

Given the system of equation, x + 4 y = 14. and 3 x + 2 y = 12, to solve for x, we can use the elimination method of solving simultaneous equation. We need to get y first.

x + 4 y = 14............ 1 * 3

3 x + 2 y = 12 ............ 2  * 1

Lets eliminate x first. Multiply equation 1 by 3 and subtract from equation 2.

3x + 12 y = 42.

3 x + 2 y = 12

Taking the diffrence;

12-2y =42 - 12

10y = 30

y = 3

From equation 1, x = 14-4y

x = 14-4(3)

x = 14-12

x = 2

It can be seen that the easiest way to get the value of x is by using the first equation and we are able to do the substitute easily <u>because the variable x has no coefficient in equation 1 compare to equation 2 </u>as such it will be easier to make the substitute for x in the first equation.

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horrorfan [7]

Answer:

\dfrac{4000\pi}{3} ft³

Step-by-step explanation:

First, let's figure out how to get the <em>volume </em>of a sphere from its <em>surface area</em>. If r is the radius of our sphere, then

The formula for a sphere's surface area is A = 4\pi r^2

The formula for a sphere's volume is V=\frac{4}{3}\pi r^3

So to get from area to volume, we have to <em>divide the area by 3 </em>and then <em>multiply it by r.</em> Mathematically:

V=\frac{A}{3}r

Before we solve for V though, we need to find the radius of our sphere. Thankfully, we're given the surface area - 400\pi ft² - so we can use the area formula to find that radius:

A=4\pi r^2=400\pi\\r^2=100\\r=10

And now that we have our radius, we can put it into our volume formula to find

V=\frac{A}{3} r=\frac{400\pi}{3}(10)=\frac{4000\pi}{3} ft³

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3 years ago
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3 years ago
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Please answer this correctly
Oksana_A [137]

Answer:

1/9

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is 1/9 because we already know the only even number on the spinner is 8.  We have a 1/3 chance on landing on 8.  Then it says we have to land on 7.  There is also a 1/3 chance for landing on 7.  So from this information, we do (1/3)*(1/3)=1/9

6 0
3 years ago
Helpppppppp pleaseee
In-s [12.5K]

Answer:

Dezias' pensil is 5.11-1.09=4.02 inches long

Paul's pencil is 4.02+2.05=6.07 inches long

Miguel's pencil is 5.11+1.75=6.86 inches long

Combined are 5.11+4.02+6.07+6.86=22.06

The fraction is 22.06/12=1.8383333...

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there are 2.54 centimeters in 1 inch. there are 100 centimeters in 1 meter.questionto the nearest meter, how many meters are in
Gre4nikov [31]

There are 7 meters in 279 inches.

  • There are 2.54 centimeters in 1 inch.
  • There are 100 centimeters in 1 meter.
  • The number of inches is given to be 279.
  • Unit conversion is a multi-step procedure that includes multiplying or dividing by a numerical factor, determining the appropriate number of significant digits, and rounding.
  • First of all, we need to convert inches to centimeters.
  • 1 inch equals 2.54 centimeters.
  • 279 inches equals 2.54*279 centimeters.
  • 279 inches equals 708.66 centimeters.
  • Now, we need to convert these centimeters into meters.
  • Meters in 100 centimeters = 1
  • Meters in 1 centimeters = 1/100
  • Meters in 708.66 centimeters = (1/100)*708.66
  • Meters in 708.66 centimeters = 7.0866
  • Thus, there are approximately 7 meters in 279 inches.

To learn more about unit conversion, visit :

brainly.com/question/11543684

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