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ira [324]
4 years ago
13

I need help with my math question please will give brainlest answer award...

Mathematics
2 answers:
Kaylis [27]4 years ago
4 0

The first option

10 (3 - 2)

10 (1) = 10

The third option

7(4) - 3(6)

28 - 18 = 10


Lyrx [107]4 years ago
3 0
1 and 3

the first one because 5 * ( 4 - 1) = 10
the second one because 7 * 4 - 3 * 6 = 10
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Alexeev081 [22]

Answer:

\frac{18}{40}=0.45

Though it may vary, it's going closer to 0.5 as long as we enlarge our sample.

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Since a coin has heads and tails, then a sample proportion of 40 we can simulate it using some applets.

2) Here are the most common outcomes, as long as we continue on flipping coins.

\frac{18}{40}=0.45

If we continue enlarging our sample (80, 120,160...) the probability goes closer to 0.5

This shows: the theoretical probability goes closer and closer to the experimental probability of heads and tails

S_{80}=0.503\\S_{120}=0.50

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Illusion [34]

Answer:

18.84

Step-by-step explanation:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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