Answer:
<em>C. 94</em>
Step-by-step explanation:
Take in account for PEMDAS: Parenthesis, Exponent, Multiplication/Division, Addition/Subtraction.
First is to find the answer within the innermost parenthesis:
(4²+1).
Find the exponent of 4², which is 16, leaving you the equation of
16+1, which equals to 17.
Next you multiply 3 by 17 (since the parenthesis of 17 borders 3):
17×3=51.
Next, multiply 51 by 2 (same rule as 3×17).
51×2=102.
After this you get 102-2³. Now, find 2³=2×2×2=8
This gets you to 102-8, ending up with your answer of 94.
Answer:
56
Step-by-step explanation:
If there can be only one 1 and only one 2, the remaining digits must all be 0. The digits 1 and 2 can be anywhere in the 8 digits, and can be in either order.
There are 8 possible locations in the sequence for the 1, then 7 possible locations for the 2. The total number of possibilities is 8·7 = 56.
12000000, 21000000, 10200000, 20100000, ..., 00000012, 00000021.
Let the required no. be x
Then the equation is-
(150/100)x = 750
=> x = 750 × (100/150)
=> x = 500
Ans- 750 is 150 percent of 500.
Answer:
D
Step-by-step explanation:
10* 8 = 80
15-10=5
8-6=2
5*2= 10
10/2= 5
80+5=85
