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Anon25 [30]
3 years ago
6

The modulus of a real number, n, is equal to _____.

Mathematics
1 answer:
Bogdan [553]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The absolute value

Step-by-step explanation:

we know that

The modulus of a real number, is equal to the absolute value of the real number

so

The modulus of a positive number is simply the number and the modulus of a negative number is found by ignoring the minus sign.

Then

modulus of n is always positive number .such that n belongs to real number R.

Modules of n is denoted by |n|

<u><em>Examples: </em></u>

|-4|=4

|2.5|=2.5

|-100.1|=100.1

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Solve the absolute value equation. If no solution write NO SOLUTION.<br> -{2x + 3] + 8<br> 12
Natasha2012 [34]

Answer:

If problem is "-|2x+3|+8=12"

then there is (<em>no solution.)</em>

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's solve your equation step-by-step.

−|2x+3|+8=12

Step 1: Add -8 to both sides.

−|2x+3|+8+−8=12+−8

−|2x+3|=4

Step 2: Divide both sides by -1.

−|2x+3|=4

   -1       -1

|2x+3|=−4

Step 3: Solve Absolute Value.

|2x+3|=−4

No solutions Because absolute value is less than 0.

4 0
3 years ago
Jane has several legal documents to type. Jane completes an average of 7 documents per 15 minutes. Her completion of one documen
liq [111]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

check the attachments below for step by step solution

8 0
3 years ago
What is the value of x?<br> 5x+11°<br> 119°
frutty [35]

Answer:

21.6

Step-by-step explanation:

119 = 5x + 11

119 - 11 = 5x

108 = 5x

108÷5 = x

21.6 = x

hope this helped you.

please give me brainliest.

thank you and have a great day ahead :D

8 0
3 years ago
Please please i need help i did not understand it
Keith_Richards [23]
V=l*w*h
5600=35*8h
Multiply 35 times 8, which you’ll get 280
5600=280h
Divide both sides
5600/280=280h/280
20=h
Therefore h=20ft is your answer <3
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Thirty percent of all telephones of a certain type are submitted for service while under warranty. Of these, 70% can be repaired
Varvara68 [4.7K]

Answer:

X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.3)

And for this case we want to find this probability:

P(X =2)

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=2)=(10C2)(0.3)^2 (1-0.3)^{10-2}=0.233

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=10, p=0.3)

And for this case we want to find this probability:

P(X =2)

And we can use the probability mass function and we got:

P(X=2)=(10C2)(0.3)^2 (1-0.3)^{10-2}=0.233

4 0
3 years ago
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