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belka [17]
4 years ago
7

Clem Colfax had $10 to buy groceries. He needed milk costing 70 cents a carton, bread costing 60 cents a loaf, breakfast cereal

costing 50 cents a box, and meat costing $1.50 a pound. He bought twice as many cartons of milk as he did loaves of bread, the number of boxes of cereal was one more than the number of loaves of bread, and the number of pounds of meat was the same as the number of boxes of cereal. How many of each did he buy if the total he spent was exactly $10?
Mathematics
1 answer:
olya-2409 [2.1K]4 years ago
3 0
The first thing we must do for this case is to define variables:
 w: pounds of meat
 x: carton of milk
 y: loaf of bread
 z: cereal breakfast box
 We write the system of equations:
 0.70x + 0.60y + 0.50z + 1.50w = 10
 x = 2y
 z = y + 1
 w = z
 Solving the system we have:
 w = 3
 x = 4
 y = 2
 z = 3
 Answer:
 
3 pounds of meat
 
4 cartons of milk
 
2 loaves of bread
 
3 boxes of breakfast cereal
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As x increases by 1 what will be the rate of change for y in this equation y=-2x+6
Natali5045456 [20]

the rate of change of a linear function is the same slope

the slope of a linear function is the coefficient that accompanies the variable in this case the variable is x and the slope is -2

so, the rate of change for y is -2

4 0
2 years ago
Taylor Series Questions!
riadik2000 [5.3K]
5.
f(x)=\sin x\implies f(\pi)=0
f'(x)=\cos x\implies f'(\pi)=-1
f''(x)=-\sin x\implies f''(\pi)=0
f'''(x)=-\cos x\implies f'''(\pi)=1

Clearly, each even-order derivative will vanish, and the terms that remain will alternate in sign, so the Taylor series is given by

f(x)=-(x-\pi)+\dfrac{(x-\pi)^3}{3!}-\dfrac{(x-\pi)^5}{5!}+\cdots
f(x)=\displaystyle\sum_{n\ge0}\frac{(-1)^{n-1}(x-\pi)^{2n+1}}{(2n+1)!}

Your answer is off by a sign - the source of this error is the fact that you used the series expansion centered at x=0, not x=\pi, and so the sign on each derivative at x=\pi is opposite of what it should be. I'm sure you can figure out the radius of convergence from here.

- - -

6. Note that this is already a polynomial, so the Taylor series will strongly resemble this and will consist of a finite number of terms. You can get the series by evaluating the derivatives at the given point, or you can simply rewrite the polynomial in x as a polynomial in x-2.

f(x)=x^6-x^4+2\implies f(2)=50
f'(x)=6x^5-4x^3\implies f'(2)=160
f''(x)=30x^4-12x^2\implies f''(2)=432
f'''(x)=120x^3-24x\implies f'''(2)=912
f^{(4)}(x)=360x^2-24\implies f^{(4)}(2)=1416
f^{(5)}(x)=720x\implies f^{(5)}(2)=1440
f^{(6)}(x)=720\implies f^{(6)}(2)=720
f^{(n\ge7)}(x)=0\implies f^{(n\ge7)}(2)=0

\implies f(x)=50+160(x-2)+216(x-2)^2+152(x-2)^3+59(x-2)^4+12(x-2)^5+(x-2)^6

If you expand this, you will end up with f(x) again, so the Taylor series must converge everywhere.

I'll outline the second method. The idea is to find coefficients so that the right hand side below matches the original polynomial:

x^6-x^4+2=(x-2)^6+a_5(x-2)^5+a_4(x-2)^4+a_3(x-2)^3+a_2(x-2)^2+a_1(x-2)+a_0

You would expand the right side, match up the coefficients for the same-power terms on the left, then solve the linear system that comes out of that. You would end up with the same result as with the standard derivative method, though perhaps more work than necessary.

- - -

7. It would help to write the square root as a rational power first:

f(x)=\sqrt x=x^{1/2}\implies f(4)=2
f'(x)=\dfrac{(-1)^0}{2^1}x^{-1/2}\implies f'(4)=\dfrac1{2^2}
f''(x)=\dfrac{(-1)^1}{2^2}x^{-3/2}\implies f''(4)=-\dfrac1{2^5}
f'''(x)=\dfrac{(-1)^2(1\times3)}{2^3}x^{-5/2}\implies f'''(4)=\dfrac3{2^8}
f^{(4)}(x)=\dfrac{(-1)^3(1\times3\times5)}{2^4}x^{-7/2}\implies f^{(4)}(4)=-\dfrac{15}{2^{11}}
f^{(5)}(x)=\dfrac{(-1)^4(1\times3\times5\times7)}{2^5}x^{-9/2}\implies f^{(5)}(4)=\dfrac{105}{2^{14}}

The pattern should be fairly easy to see.

f(x)=2+\dfrac{x-4}{2^2}-\dfrac{(x-4)^2}{2^5\times2!}+\dfrac{3(x-4)^3}{2^8\times3!}-\dfrac{15(x-4)^4}{2^{11}\times4!}+\cdots
f(x)=2+\displaystyle\sum_{n\ge1}\dfrac{(-1)^n(-1\times1\times3\times5\times\cdots\times(2n-3)}{2^{3n-1}n!}(x-4)^n

By the ratio test, the series converges if

\displaystyle\lim_{n\to\infty}\left|\frac{\dfrac{(-1)^{n+1}(-1\times\cdots\times(2n-3)\times(2n-1))(x-4)^{n+1}}{2^{3n+2}(n+1)!}}{\dfrac{(-1)^n(-1\times\cdots\tiems(2n-3))(x-4)^n}{2^{3n-1}n!}}\right|
\implies\displaystyle\frac{|x-4|}8\lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{2n-1}{n+1}=\frac{|x-4|}4
\implies |x-4|

so that the ROC is 4.

- - -

10. Without going into much detail, you should have as your Taylor polynomial

\sin x\approx T_4(x)=\dfrac12+\dfrac{\sqrt3}2\left(x-\dfrac\pi6\right)-\dfrac14\left(x-\dfrac\pi6\right)^2-\dfrac1{4\sqrt3}\left(x-\dfrac\pi6\right)^3+\dfrac1{48}\left(x-\dfrac\pi6\right)^4

Taylor's inequality then asserts that the error of approximation on the interval 0\le x\le\dfrac\pi3 is given by

|\sin x-T_4(x)|=|R_4(x)|\le\dfrac{M\left|x-\frac\pi6\right|^5}{5!}

where M satisfies |f^{(5)}(x)|\le M on the interval.

We know that (\sin x)^{(5)}=\cos x is bounded between -1 and 1, so we know M=1 will suffice. Over the given interval, we have \left|x-\dfrac\pi6\right|\le\dfrac\pi6, so the remainder will be bounded above by

|R_4(x)|\le\dfrac{1\times\left(\frac\pi6\right)^5}{5!}=\dfrac{\pi^5}{933120}\approx0.000328

which is to say, over the interval 0\le x\le\dfrac\pi3, the fourth degree Taylor polynomial approximates the value of \sin x near x=\dfrac\pi6 to within 0.000328.
7 0
4 years ago
Can someone please answer this question please answer it correctly and please show work please help me I need it
WINSTONCH [101]

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

-19-11 = -19 + (-11)

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
NEED HELP ASAP
algol [13]

Answer:

A) car one is linear because it decreases the same amount every year.  

    car two decreases by the same ratio so it's exponential.  

B) for car one y = -6,000x + 38,000 (y is the value after x years, -6,000 is what it changes by every year, and 38,000 is the amount of year 0)

   for car two y = (44,000) (17/20)x-1 (y is the value after x years, 44,000 is the amount on year 0, and 17/20 is the ratio)

C) after 5 years car one will be 8,000

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7 0
3 years ago
Real answer or i will report you if you give me a right aswer i will give brainest
Lilit [14]

Answer:

0 and the second one

Step-by-step explanation:

integers are whole numbers they are NOT a fraction

3 0
3 years ago
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