Answer:
The probability of the tip to be more than 200 is 0.1.
Step-by-step explanation:
As per the given data
Amount of tip Number
0-20 200
20-50 100
50-100 75
100-200 75
200+ 50
____________________
Total= 500
So what is the probability of tip to be more than 200 is given as
From the table the value is 50 for the tip to be more than 200 where as the total occurrences are 500 so substituting values:
So the probability of the tip to be more than 200 is 0.1.
Answer:
X=7
Step-by-step explanation:
7*15=105 7-2=5 5*25=125 125+105=230
Answer:
it will be 1.75$
Step-by-step explanation:
56-18
38x2.25
117$ - 85.5$
31.5 / 18
Answer:if the notebooks cost 3.59 and pens cost 1.49, with x representing the notebooks and y representing the number of pens and an amount of $13, the inequality would be written as 3.59x+1.49y13
Step-by-step explanation:
1) To work out the result after a percentage is applied to a number, you work out 'the percentage number/100' and write the answer of this calculation down. 2) You THEN multiply this calculated number (called the 'percentage multiplier') by your orginal number (called the 'principal'). 3) The result of this calculation gives you the answer of what happens when your orginal number is multiplied by a certain percentage. 4) Thus, for a 2.99% increase work out: " (100+2.99)/100 "
The answer is 1.029 - SO THIS is your percentage multiplier. 5) Your earn 2.99% interest each year for 5 years. Thus you multiply your principal (10,500) by the calculated percentage multiplier (1.029), BUT you you multiply the principal by this multiplier 5 TIMES! 6) So, the calulation is:10,500 × (1.029^5). 7) This EQUALS $12,113.403198) Rounded to the nearest cent, the final amount in the account AFTER 5 YEARS = $12,113.40 8) THE ANSWER IS THUS: $12,113.40
