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tensa zangetsu [6.8K]
3 years ago
8

During a routine physical examination on an older female client, a nurse notes that the client is 5 feet, 3/8 inches (1.6 m) tal

l. The client states, "How is that possible? I was always 5 feet and 1/2? (1.7 m) tall." Which statement is the best response by the nurse?
a) "The posture begins to stoop after middle age."b) "After menopause, the body's bone density declines, resulting in a gradual loss of height."c) "After age 40, height may show a gradual decrease as a result of spinal compression"d) "There may be some slight discrepancy between the measuring tools used."
Biology
1 answer:
Andru [333]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

B

Explanation:

The nurse should tell the client that after menopause, the loss of estrogen leads to a loss in bone density, resulting in a loss of height.

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Answer:

D

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Incomplete dominance is a phenomenon in genetic inheritance that occurs when the two alleles of a gene seem equally effective in their influence on a trait. It is a form of Intermediate dominance in which one allele for a specific trait does not completely mask the expression of its paired allele, as opposed to Mendel's law of dominance. Incomplete dominance results in a third phenotype different from the parent phenotypes but a combination of both.

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Gregor Mendel discovered this concept of incomplete dominance in the flower of four o'clock plants when he crossed a purebred (homozygous) red-flowered (RR) with a purebred (homozygous) white-flowered plant (rr) to get F1 offsprings that are all heterozygous but have pink flowers (Rr). He later self-fertilized the F1 offsprings to produce a phenotypic ratio of 1:2:1 consisting of 1 red, 2 pinks, 1 white flower respectively.

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Incomplete dominance is similar but different from co-dominance in the sense that, in co-dominance, both alleles/traits are expressed completely in the new phenotype produced while in incomplete dominance, the new phenotype is just a blending of the two phenotypes.

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