Answer:
b. Maximize owner's wealth.
Explanation:
The owners wealth is usually measured by the financial behaviour of shares. In that sense we can find two reasons why is so important for the firm's management.
1. The managers recieve a greater compensation when the performance of the share increases their value. The managers have an incentive in order to keep the price of shares high.
2. Is a market oriented reason. For shareholders, consumers, banks and stakeholders, a good performance of the share is a positive signal for future investments, quality of the services and products and stability in the long run.
Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
In the context of a conference, a convention is indeed a assembly of individuals that occur at an agreed location and time either to address or participate in a mutual interest. The most commonly organised conventions are focused on trade, career and fanbase.
Conventions are mostly organised and managed by skilled gathering and conference managers, sometimes by the event organising company's employees or by independent experts, sometimes in exact description. Many big cities should have a conference centre devoted to organising activities like these.
Answer:
The correct answer is $47,596.2.
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:
Total amount (P)= $46,000
Rate of interest = 5.2%
Time period = 8 months
So, rate of interest for 8 months (r) = 5.2% × 8 ÷ 12 = 3.47%
Time period (t)= 1
So, we can calculate the Joe loan repayment value by using following formula:
Loan repayment value = P × ( 1 + r)^t
= $46,000 × ( 1 + 3.47%)^1
= $46,000 × ( 1.0347)^1
= $47,596.2
Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
Actual units sold = 86000
Budgeted units sold = 89000
Budgeted selling price = 59
Budgeted variable cost = 34
Budgeted contribution margin = 59 - 34 = 25
Budgeted market share = 20%
Acual industry volume = 334000
Standard units sold = 20% × 334000 = 66800
Sales activity variance:
= (Actual units sold - Budgeted units sold) × Budgeted contribution margin
= (86000 - 89000) × 25
= -3000 × 25
= 75000 Unfavorable
Market share variance will be:
= (86000 × 25) - (66800 × 25)
= 2150000 - 1670000
= 480000 Favorable
Industry volume variance:
= (66800 × 25) - (89000 × 25)
= 1670000 - 2225000
= 555000 Unfavorable
Answer:
Annual depreciation for the first year = $15,500
Annual depreciation for the second year = $7,500
Explanation:
Data provided in the question;
Cost of the delivery truck = $31,000
Salvage value = $4,000
Useful life = 4 years
Now,
The Rate of depreciation under declining-balance = 2 × straight-line rate
= 2 × 
= 0.5
or
= 0.5 × 100% = 50%
Therefore,
Annual depreciation for the first year = cost of truck × Rate of depreciation
= $31,000 × 0.5
= $15,500
Annual depreciation for the second year
= Book value at the end of first year of truck × Rate of depreciation
= $15,500 × 0.5
= $7,500
