Answer:
the inventory should be recorded at $8,500
Explanation:
As we know that according to GAAP, the inventory should be recorded at a cost or net realizable value whichever is lower
So as per the question
Historical cost is $12,000
And, the net realizable value is
= Expected selling price - expected selling cost
= $9,000 - $500
= $8,500
So, the lower cost is $8,500
Hence, the inventory should be recorded at $8,500
Answer:
total cash pay is $200850
Explanation:
given data
Bakery signed P = $195000
rate R = 6 %
time T = 6 month
to find out
cash amount will be needed to pay back with interest
solution
we find first interest for 6 month that is 6/12 year
so interest = P×R×T
interest = 195000×0.06×6/12
interest = $5850
so total amount pay = Principal + Interest
total amount pay =195000 + 5850
total cash pay = $200850
Answer:
Explanation:
At $0.86
$0.86<$0.89
The buyer of the call option will not exercise the option. Net profit will be equal to the premium paid per unit = $0.02/unit.
At $0.87
$0.87<$0.89
The buyer of the call option will still not exercise the option. Therefore, net profit will be equal to the premium paid per unit = $0.02 unit. So net profit = $0.02/unit
At $0.88
$0.88<$0.89
The buyer of the call option will still not exercise the option. Net profit will be equal to the premium paid per unit = $0.02 unit. So net profit = $0.02/unit
At $0.89
$0.89=$0.89
The buyer of the call option will still not exercise the option. Net profit will be equal to the premium paid per unit = $0.02/unit.
At $0.91
The buyer will exercise the option and the net loss to Bulldog Inc will be 0.02/unit ($0.91-$0.89)
So there is no profit and no loss because this is offset by the call premium
Profit = -0.02 (loss on exercise) + 0.02 (call premium) = $0/unit
At $0.92
The buyer will exercise the option. The net loss to Bulldog Inc will be $0.03/unit ($0.92-$0.89)
Loss= -0.03 (loss on exercise) + 0.02 (call premium) = -$0.01/unit
Uninsured motorists. Make sure you have it.
Answer:
actual quantity of the cost-allocation base used and the budgeted quantity of the cost-allocation base that should have been used to produce the actual output
Explanation:
The formula to calculate the variable overhead efficiency variance is shown below:
= (Standard quantity - actual quantity) ÷ budgeted variable overhead cost per unit
In the case when the standard quantity is more than the actual one so it is favorable else unfavorable
Therefore the last option is correct
And, the other options are wrong
