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Scilla [17]
4 years ago
10

Dmitri recorded 9 8/9 minutes of video of his trip. He wanted to divide the video into 3 equal parts. How many minutes is each p

art?
Mathematics
2 answers:
ad-work [718]4 years ago
8 0
Make 9 8/9 an improper fraction which is 89/9. Then you would divide this by 3, but when you do fractions you do keep, change, and flip. So you keep 89/9. Change the sign from division to multiplication. And flip the 3/1 to 1/3. The answer (not 100% sure) is 89/27. To make this a mixed fraction it is 3 8/9.
navik [9.2K]4 years ago
7 0

Wellll, its going to come out as 3.2962962963. But you can always round it to 3.30.

Hope this helped

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Imagine the path of the tip of the pendulum as an arc of a circle. The circle would have a radius of 4 feet and the arc would be 20 degrees. To calculate the length of the arc, you need to find 20 degrees of the circumference. 

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4 years ago
What's the square root of 6.909877
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The answer is square root of 6.909877
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4 years ago
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What is 37.06 on ft to sq yrds
Anastaziya [24]
37.06 to yards is 

4.1177 Square yards

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Solve<br><img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Csf%20%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D%7Bp%7D%20%2B%20%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D%7Bq%7D%20%2B%20%5Cdfrac%7B1%7D
Nostrana [21]

Answer:

\displaystyle   \begin{cases} \displaystyle  {x} _{1} =  - p \\   \displaystyle x _{2}   =  -  q \end{cases}

Step-by-step explanation:

we would like to solve the following equation for x:

\displaystyle  \frac{1}{p}  +  \frac{1}{q}  +  \frac{1}{x}  =  \frac{1}{p  + q + x}

to do so isolate \frac{1}{x} to right hand side and change its sign which yields:

\displaystyle  \frac{1}{p}  +  \frac{1}{q}    =  \frac{1}{p  + q + x}  -  \frac{1}{x}

simplify Substraction:

\displaystyle  \frac{1}{p}  +  \frac{1}{q}    =  \frac{x - (q + p +  x)}{x(p  + q + x)}

get rid of only x:

\displaystyle  \frac{1}{p}  +  \frac{1}{q}    =  \frac{  - (q + p )}{x(p  + q + x)}

simplify addition of the left hand side:

\displaystyle  \frac{q + p}{pq}     =  \frac{  - (q + p )}{x(p  + q + x)}

divide both sides by q+p Which yields:

\displaystyle  \frac{1}{pq}     =  \frac{  -1}{x(p  + q + x)}

cross multiplication:

\displaystyle    x(p  + q + x)  =   - pq

distribute:

\displaystyle    xp  + xq +  {x}^{2} =   - pq

isolate -pq to the left hand side and change its sign:

\displaystyle    xp  + xq +  {x}^{2} + pq =  0

rearrange it to standard form:

\displaystyle   {x}^{2} +    xp  + xq  + pq =  0

now notice we end up with a <u>quadratic</u><u> equation</u> therefore to solve so we can consider <u>factoring</u><u> </u><u>method</u><u> </u><u> </u>to use so

factor out x:

\displaystyle  x( {x}^{} +   p ) + xq  + pq =  0

factor out q:

\displaystyle  x( {x}^{} +   p ) +q (x + p)=  0

group:

\displaystyle  ( {x}^{} +   p ) (x + q)=  0

by <em>Zero</em><em> product</em><em> </em><em>property</em> we obtain:

\displaystyle   \begin{cases} \displaystyle  {x}^{} +   p  = 0 \\   \displaystyle x + q=  0 \end{cases}

cancel out p from the first equation and q from the second equation which yields:

\displaystyle   \begin{cases} \displaystyle  {x}^{}   =  - p \\   \displaystyle x  =  -  q \end{cases}

and we are done!

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3 years ago
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Answer: positive

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