Answer:
option c)
d = 1
Step-by-step explanation:
Given the equation in the question,
-3d / (d² - 2d - 8) + (3 / d-4) = (-2 / d+2)
quadratic factorisation
-3d / (d+2)(d-4) + (3 / d-4) = (-2 / d+2)
-3d / (d+2)(d-4) = (-2 / d+2) - (3 / d-4)
taking LCM on right side
-3d / (d+2)(d-4) = ( -2(d-4) - 3(d+2)) / (d+2)(d-4)
canceling (d+2)(d-4) on both sides
-3d = -2(d-4) - 3(d+2)
-3d = -2d + 8 - 3d - 6
-3d + 2d + 3d = 8 - 6
2d = 2
d = 1
Answer:
Just for fun, the probability of rolling a die 60 times and getting no ones is
(600)(5/6)60=0.0018% .
Step-by-step explanation:
This 10 ones is the value with the highest probability of occurring. It has a probability of (6010)(1/6)10∗(5/6)50≈13.7% .
Answer:
165.5
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
Well it should be JK, then JL, then KL
Step-by-step explanation:
Answer:
A. 1,000 ml milk B. 3,500 g flour
Step-by-step explanation:
Divide: 250 divided by 8. You get 31.25.
Multiply: 31.25 times 32. You get 1,000
Divide: 140 divide by 8. You get 17.5
Multiply: 17.5 times 20. You get 3,500
Hope I helped!! :) Sorry if it's wrong! :(