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Bas_tet [7]
3 years ago
11

Mark Crane purchased a $1,000 corporate bond five years ago for $1,055. The bond paid 7.0 percent annual interest. Five years la

ter, he sold the bond for $980. Calculate the total return for Mr. Crane’s bond investment. (Do not round intermediate calculations.)
Business
1 answer:
lys-0071 [83]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Mr Crane's total return on the bond investment was 5.35%

Explanation:

The return on a bond is also known as it yield to maturity (YTM). In order to find a bonds YTM we need to know its present value, future value, coupon payments and number of years. In this case the bond's present value is 1,055 because it was bought at this price, it's future value is 980 because it was sold for 980, its number of years was 5 as it was held for 5 years and its coupon payment was  (0.07*1000)=70. Now in order to compute return or ytm we need to put all these values in a financial calculator and compute I

PV= -1055

FV= 980

PMT= 70

N=5

Compute I=5.35

The return on the bond investment was 5.35%

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Succulent Juice Company manufactures and sells premium tomato juice by the gallon. Succulent just finished its first year of ope
Naddik [55]

Answer:

Instructions are below.

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Number of Gallons Produced 80,000

Number of Gallons Sold 70,000

Sales Price $3.00/gallon

Unit Product Cost (variable costing) $1.45/gallon

Contribution Margin $84,000

Total Fixed Manufacturing Overhead $?

Total Fixed Selling & Administrative $25,000

Variable Selling & Administrative $?Total Fixed Selling & Administrative $25,000

Variable Selling & Administrative $?

Inventory value under absorption costing $29,500

T<u>he difference between the absorption and variable costing method is that the first one includes the fixed manufacturing overhead in the product cost.</u>

Absorption= direct material + direct labor + total unitary overhead

Variable=  direct material + direct labor + unitary variable overhead

First, we will calculate all the missing information:

Sales= 3*70,000= 210,000

Total variable cost= 210,000 - 84,000= 126,000

Unitary varaible cost= 126,000/70,000= $1.8 per unit

Unitary variable selling and administrative= 1.8 - 1.45= 0.35

Unitary inventory production cost (absorption)= 29,500/10,000= $2.95

Unitary fixed manufacturing cost= 2.95 - 1.45= 1.5

Now, we can determine the income statement under absorption and variable costing method:

A<u>bsorption costing:</u>

Sales= 210,000

COGS= 70,000*2.95= (206,500)

Gross profit= 3,500

Total Fixed Selling & Administrative= (25,000)

Variable Selling & Administrative= (0.35*70,000)=

Net operating income= (46,000)

<u>Variable costing method:</u>

Sales= 210,000

Total variable cost= (126,000)

Contribution margin= 84,000

Total Fixed Selling & Administrative= (25,000)

Total fixed manufacturing overhead= (80,000*1.5)= (120,000)

Net operating income= (61,000)

4 0
3 years ago
The seller of product a has no idle capacity and can sell all it can produce at $60 per unit. outlay (variable) cost is $12. wha
Marrrta [24]

The answer is $48.

The seller of product a has no idle capacity and can sell all it can produce at $60 per unit. outlay (variable) cost is $12. $48 is the opportunity cost, assuming the seller sells internally

It is calculated as follows:

Opportunity cost= Production cost- Outlay cost

                             = 60-12

                               =$48

Opportunity costs represent the potential benefits which any individual or investor, or  any business misses out on when choosing one alternative over another.

Because the opportunity costs are generally unseen by definition, they can be easily overlooked. Understanding of the potential missed opportunities when any business or any individual chooses one investment over another investment allows for better decision making.

To know more about opportunity cost here:

brainly.com/question/13036997

#SPJ4

5 0
1 year ago
Imagine you are the owner of a natural gas company. You can either extract as much of the resource as fast as possible or delay
Arte-miy333 [17]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Please help me anyone (picture attached)
sergey [27]

Answer:

Im not entirely sure, but i think

2. Should be D

3. Should be A

(i could be wrong but im about 90 percent sure those r right)

Explanation:

3 0
2 years ago
Pamela, a 1/3 partner, has an adjusted basis of $100,000 for her partnership interest. If Pamela sells her entire partnership in
creativ13 [48]

Answer: Capital gain = $10,000 ; Ordinary income = $25,000

Explanation:

Here is the complete question:

The PLM Partnership balance sheet includes the following assets on December 31 of the current year:

Basis FMV

Cash $230,000 $230,000

Accounts receivable 0 75000

Land 70,000 100,000

Total $300,000 $405,000

Pamela, a 1/3 partner, has an adjusted basis of $100,000 for her partnership interest. If Pamela sells her entire partnership interest to Emma for $135,000 cash, how much capital gain and ordinary income must Pamela recognize from the sale?

The following can be calculated based on the question above:

Pamela's share of the unrealized receivables will be the ordinary income which will be the unrealized receivables of $75000 which is then multiplied by 1/3 which is the interest. This will be:

Ordinary income = 1/3 × $75,00

= $25,000

The capital gain will be the difference that occurs between total gain and ordinary income.

Total gain difference

= $135,000 - $100,000

= $35,000

Ordinary Income = $25,000

Capital gain = $35,000 - $25,000

= $10,000

5 0
2 years ago
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