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blagie [28]
3 years ago
7

Why does the multiplicative inverse of a number have the same sign as the number?

Mathematics
1 answer:
denis23 [38]3 years ago
7 0
<span>Look at the definition of multiplicative inverse. If two numbers are multiplicative inverses of each other, then by definition, their product will be equal to 1. And 1 is a positive number. If both numbers being multiplied are positive, then the result is positive. And of both numbers being multiplied are negative, then the result is still positive. But if one number is positive and the other is negative, then the result is negative. So if you want a positive result, then both numbers you're multiplying have to have the same sign. And since we want a result of 1 for multiplicative inverses and since 1 is positive, then the numbers being multiplied have to have the same sign.</span>
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A cell phone package charges $39 even if 0 minutes are used during the month. Each additional minute of talk time adds $0.07.
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Answer: the slope intercept form for this situation is y = 0.07x + 39

Step-by-step explanation:

The cell phone package charges $39 even if 0 minutes are used during the month. This means that the package has a constant charge of $39.

Each additional minute of talk time adds $0.07. Assuming x additional minutes of talk time is made, the total cost of x additional minutes of talk time would be

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Let y represent the total cost of x additional minutes, then

y = 0.07x + 39

The equation for the slope intercept form is expressed as

y = mx + c

Where

m = slope

c = intercept.

Comparing with our equation,

The slope is 0.07 and the intercept is 39

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Step-by-step explanation:

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