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blagie [28]
3 years ago
7

Why does the multiplicative inverse of a number have the same sign as the number?

Mathematics
1 answer:
denis23 [38]3 years ago
7 0
<span>Look at the definition of multiplicative inverse. If two numbers are multiplicative inverses of each other, then by definition, their product will be equal to 1. And 1 is a positive number. If both numbers being multiplied are positive, then the result is positive. And of both numbers being multiplied are negative, then the result is still positive. But if one number is positive and the other is negative, then the result is negative. So if you want a positive result, then both numbers you're multiplying have to have the same sign. And since we want a result of 1 for multiplicative inverses and since 1 is positive, then the numbers being multiplied have to have the same sign.</span>
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Answer:

376 miles each day

Step-by-step explanation:

If Angie's grandma wants to drive the same distance each day, she can divide her journey in to two equal halves.

The total distance that Angie's grandma has to drive is 752 miles so each day she may need to drive,

\frac{752}{2}=376 miles

Also, it takes 12 hours to drive 752 miles, so the speed at which Angie's grandma should drive is,

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At this speed if she drives 6 hours a day, she may need to drive,

d= s \times t= 62.667 \times 6 = 376 miles in a day.

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3 years ago
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Opposite lateral faces of a rectangular pyramid are congruent.

I think is OPPOSITE . 
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nadezda [96]

<u>Here are your fill-ins:</u>

r = 1 is a zero, so (r-1) is a factor.

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See the attachment for the synthetic division numbers.

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PEMDAS
P - Parentheses (or other grouping symbols)
E - Exponents 
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S - Subtraction

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8 0
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Can someone help me with these problems ???
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