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blagie [28]
3 years ago
7

Why does the multiplicative inverse of a number have the same sign as the number?

Mathematics
1 answer:
denis23 [38]3 years ago
7 0
<span>Look at the definition of multiplicative inverse. If two numbers are multiplicative inverses of each other, then by definition, their product will be equal to 1. And 1 is a positive number. If both numbers being multiplied are positive, then the result is positive. And of both numbers being multiplied are negative, then the result is still positive. But if one number is positive and the other is negative, then the result is negative. So if you want a positive result, then both numbers you're multiplying have to have the same sign. And since we want a result of 1 for multiplicative inverses and since 1 is positive, then the numbers being multiplied have to have the same sign.</span>
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The cost of 8 tacos is $6.00 at henry's food truck. what would be the cost of 13 tacos at the food truck?
saw5 [17]
$9.75 because one taco is 0.75 and 13 x 0.75 is $9.75
4 0
3 years ago
Maya has 5/6 cup of ice cream. How many 1/4-cup servings are in 5/6 cup of ice cream?
Alla [95]

Answer:

3 and 1 over 3.

Step-by-step explanation:

We divide 5/6  by 1/4.

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8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Help! Please!!! I seriously need this!!!!!
Kitty [74]

Answer:

it's related by product of 5/3 and directly proportional

3 0
2 years ago
Can someone help me plss! ?
Ann [662]
Sry but that’s too much which one would you like help on
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3 years ago
What is 2.75 rounded to the nearest hundredth
almond37 [142]
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Enjoy!=)
4 0
3 years ago
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