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leonid [27]
3 years ago
11

How many revolutions does a go kart with a wheel circumference of 62.8318 inches make in a 1609 m race? Please answer as quickly

as possible!
Mathematics
1 answer:
Rudiy273 years ago
3 0

Answer: 1008 revolutions

Step-by-step explanation:

1 revolution is equal to 2\pi r

To find how many revolutions the wheel makes, you must divide the distance traveled in the race between the circumference of the wheel

You must first convert 62.8318 in to meters.

We know that 1 inch is 0.0254 meters

Then

62.8318\ in*\frac{0.0254\ m}{1\ in}= 1.5959\ m

revolutions = \frac{1609}{1.5959}\\\\revolutions=1008.21\\

Finally The wheel made 1008.21 revolutions

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TiliK225 [7]

Answer:

B(0) = 0 depth in inches 0 minutes after filling began is 0 ; that is at time = 0 ; depth = 0

B(1) represents the function one minutes after filling began.

B(9) = 11 depicts that the depth in inches if water 9 minutes after filling began is 11.

Step-by-step explanation:

The function gives depth of water in inches 7 minutes after filling began

A.) B(0)=0

The statement B(0) = 0 means the depth in inches 0 minutes after filling began is 0 ; that is at time = 0 ; depth = 0

B.) B(1)

B(1) represents the function one minutes after filling began.

C.B(9)=11

B(9) = 11 depicts that the depth in inches if water 9 minutes after filling began is 11.

4 0
3 years ago
<img src="https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%5Cfrac%7B%5Csec%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29%7D%7B%5Ccos%5Cleft%28x%5Cright%29%7D-%5Cfrac%7B%5Csin%5
DanielleElmas [232]

Answer:

1

Step-by-step explanation:

First, convert all the secants and cosecants to cosine and sine, respectively. Recall that csc(x)=1/sin(x) and sec(x)=1/cos(x).

Thus:

\frac{sec(x)}{cos(x)} -\frac{sin(x)}{csc(x)cos^2(x)}

=\frac{\frac{1}{cos(x)} }{cos(x)} -\frac{sin(x)}{\frac{1}{sin(x)}cos^2(x) }

Let's do the first part first: (Recall how to divide fractions)

\frac{\frac{1}{cos(x)} }{cos(x)}=\frac{1}{cos(x)} \cdot \frac{1}{cos(x)}=\frac{1}{cos^2(x)}

For the second term:

\frac{sin(x)}{\frac{cos^2(x)}{sin(x)} } =\frac{sin(x)}{1} \cdot\frac{sin(x)}{cos^2(x)}=\frac{sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}

So, all together: (same denominator; combine terms)

\frac{1}{cos^2(x)}-\frac{sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}=\frac{1-sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}

Note the numerator; it can be derived from the Pythagorean Identity:

sin^2(x)+cos^2(x)=1; cos^2(x)=1-sin^2(x)

Thus, we can substitute the numerator:

\frac{1-sin^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}=\frac{cos^2(x)}{cos^2(x)}=1

Everything simplifies to 1.

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The answer is a okay

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Answer:

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