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Aleks [24]
3 years ago
11

At 1

Business
1 answer:
ELEN [110]3 years ago
7 0
B) did not acquire the instrument in good faith
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The time between the disabling event and the beginning of payments in your disability coverage is called:___________
jeka57 [31]

The time between the disabling event and therefore the beginning of payments in your disability coverage is called: Elimination period.

Option C is correct

<h2>What is the purpose of elimination period?</h2>

The purpose of an elimination period is to give you the opportunity to get treatment and see how your illness or injury responds. you'll be able to return to work using only paid leave or short-term disability.

<h3>Do you get paid during elimination period?</h3>

Elimination Period: The elimination period may be a period of time an employee must be disabled before benefits are paid. for brief term disability, there's an elimination period for disabilities due to sickness and one for those due to injury. The elimination periods could also be the same length, counting on the policy.

Learn more about elimination period:

brainly.com/question/13547683

#SPJ4

5 0
1 year ago
Who can cheer me up i have seizures
AlekseyPX

Answer:

I got a joke for you :)

Why do we tell actors to “break a leg?”

Because every play has a cast.

3 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Eric's Used Book Store prepares its financial statements in accordance with IFRS. Inventory was purchased for €6 million and lat
andrew-mc [135]

Answer:

€6 million

Explanation:

As we know that

According to the International Financial Reporting Standards, if the net realizable value of the inventory increases then the written down of reversal value is required

And according to the GAAP, the inventory should be valued at lower of cost or net realizable value

So in the given case, the inventory is purchased at €6 million and now it is estimated value is  €7 million so the lower value i.e €6 million should be reported on the balance sheet.

4 0
3 years ago
For normal goods, the demand curve is: A. upward sloping only if the income effect is larger than the substitution effect. B. al
Kruka [31]

Answer:

B) always downward sloping.

Explanation:

The demand curve for normal goods is always downward sloping because of a combination of three factors:

  1. the purchasing power of the customers decrease and if the price of a product increases, consumers will be able to buy less even if they don't want to
  2. consumer surplus decreases since the difference between how much a consumer is wiling to pay for the good and its actual price decreases or even becomes negative, so they will not be willing to purchase it
  3. as the price of normal goods increases, consumers will tend to increase the quantity demanded for substitute products

6 0
3 years ago
Why would a producer decide to produce in a competitive market in which she will earn zero profit in the long run? Choose one: A
zhenek [66]

Answer:

Option A : Because at zero profit, with her revenue, she can cover all her costs—explicit and implicit (opportunity cost).

Explanation:

Perfectly Competitive Market

This is simply a market the market participants are said to be price takers that is no consumption decisions by individual consumers and no production decisions by individual producers can be able to affect the market price of a good.

Perfectly Competitive Industry

This is simply an industry where producers are said to be price takers.

Explicit Costs

These are costs that are simply known as "out-of-pocket" costs or in accounting costs. They are an individual's fixed and variable costs of doing business.

Implicit Costs

These are costs that do not partains to monetary payment as they are the opportunity costs of doing business.

It is said that at zero profit, the revenue covers all the costs, including the implicit ones. The fact that her implicit costs are covered shows that no outside option or opportunity that is superior to the zero economic profit option is chosened.

4 0
3 years ago
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