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xxMikexx [17]
3 years ago
10

based upon the current ratio, how would creditors or lenders feel about the liquidity of the buisness? why?

Business
1 answer:
damaskus [11]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

Current ration is a measurement that measures how many current assets are there to cover up the current liabilities. the ratio represent the firm's ability to meet the day to day, short term obligations.

it is calculated as follows,

Quick Ratio/Current asset ratio=Current Assets/Current Liabilities

a normal, health current asset ratio is 1. and it is better when the number is going up.

This gives the short term lenders (such as short term bond holders) and suppliers the ability to assess the companies ability to pay off the short term obligations in an even of  bankruptcy or  finanacial crisis.

Explanation:

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If the required reserve ratio is 2.50 percent, what is the monetary multiplier? if the monetary multiplier is 5, what is the req
ludmilkaskok [199]

If the required reserve ratio is 2.50 percent, the monetary multiplier is 40.

The money multiplier gives us the ratio of deposits to reserves (i.e. 1/R). That means, if the reserve ratio is 2.50% (i.e. 0.025), the money multiplier is 40 (i.e. 1/0.025). Thus, an initial deposit of USD 1,000 will end up creating a total of USD 40,000 in new money.

If the monetary multiplier is 5, the required reserve ratio is 20%.

Playing with the original multiplier formula, we can derive that R=1/m (m is money multiplier). If the money multiplier is 5, then the reserve ratio is 20% (i.e. 1/5 or 0.20).

8 0
3 years ago
You are thinking about a project to expand your business. In order to start the project, you have to invest $200,000 in new equi
9966 [12]

Answer:

$270,000

Explanation:

The computation of the initial outlay of the project is shown below:

The initial outlay of this project = Purchase Price of the Asset + Installation Costs + Shipping cost + Investment in Working Capital

= $200,000 + $15,000 + $5,000 + $50,000

= $270,000

We simply added the purchased price, installation charges, shipping cost and the investment in working capital so that the initial outlay could come

5 0
2 years ago
Roadway Corporation produces a special line of plastic toy racing cars. Roadway Corporation , produces the cars in batches. To m
r-ruslan [8.4K]

Answer:

the efficiency variance for variable overhead setup costs is $4,810 favorable

Explanation:

The computation of the efficiency variance for variable overhead setup costs is shown below;

= ((15,700 ÷ 265) × 4.25) × $45 - ((15,700 ÷ 325) × 3) × $45

= $11,330.6604 - $6,521.5384

= $4,809.12 favorable

= $4,810 favorable

hence, the efficiency variance for variable overhead setup costs is $4,810 favorable

4 0
2 years ago
Engineer Brown has been engaged in providing consulting engineering services for a number of years as a sole proprietor. Because
frez [133]

Answer:

Engineer Brown has been engaged in providing consulting engineering services for a number of years as a sole proprietor. Because his practice was growing, he recently hired another engineer and decided to commence offering professional services under the name of Brown and Associates. In order to comply with the rules he must

Notify the Board office of the name change

Explanation:

Since it is the same company but just with change of name changes, notification to the company he render services for is only needed to avoid confusion about the authenticity of the company

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Sebastian purchases two pieces of equipment for $100,000. Appraisals of the equipment indicate that the fair market value of the
Schach [20]

Answer:

$100,000

Explanation:

According to the internal revenue service ''<u>In most situations, the basis of an asset is its cost to you.</u> <u>The cost is the amount you pay for it in cash</u>, debt obligations, and other property or services. Cost includes sales tax and other <u>expenses connected with the purchase</u>.''

Therefore Sebastian's basis in these two assets is unconnected with the fair market value of the assets but with the cost.

Purchased Equipment is always recorded at its acquisition cost or its net book value, that is after deducting the accumulated depreciation . In the scenario we have no depreciation figures, hence the basis is the cost of $100,000

8 0
3 years ago
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