The answer to your question is c
The reason why there is such a difference between civilian deaths in WWI and WWII was that civilians were deliberately targeted in WWII.
<h3>Why were there more civilian deaths in WWII?</h3>
In WWII, the combatants targeted civilians directly in some cases as opposed to WWI where civilian deaths were limited.
For instance, WWII saw the Nazis targeting specific populations such as Jews. The allies also targeted civilian areas during their bombing raids in order to pressure the Nazis to surrender.
Find out more on civilian deaths in WWII at brainly.com/question/10577518.
Disagreements between the two formed early divisions within the government regarding policies on economics. They became the foundation for political parties as Hamilton wanted to have high trade tariffs and a centralized bank (Bank of the United States) and Jefferson wanted to concentrate on what would be good for the common man (the policies of the Democrat-Republicans).
Answer:
Balban had several military achievements during his vizierhood, first raising the Mongol siege of Uch under Masud Shah in 1246. When the governor of Bengal, Tughral Tughan Khan, revoked the authority of Delhi in 1275, Balban first sent the governor of Awadh and then a second army, both of which met with failure.
(not sure)
It's between b or c. Im leaning towards c. 16th & 17th century was the renaissance and reformation.
