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irakobra [83]
3 years ago
10

You can insure a $42,000 diamond for its total value by paying a premium of D dollars. If the probability of loss in a given yea

r is estimated to be 0.02, what premium should the insurance company charge if it wants the expected gain to equal $1,000?
Business
1 answer:
ella [17]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

E(X) =\sum_{i=1}^n X_i P(X_i)

Replacing the values that we have:

1 = 0.98*a + 0.02(a-42) = 0.98a +0.02a -0.84

And solving for a we got:

1.84 = a

So then the premium value for the insurance on this case should be 1840 dollars.

Explanation:

For this case we can define the random variable X as the gain ( in thousand of dollars) of insurance company

We assume that the premium clase charge and amount of a to the company and we know from the info given that:

p(X=a) = 1-0.02 = 0.98

p(X = a-42) = 0.02

E(X) = 1 represent the expected gain in thousand of dollars

The expected value of a random variable X is the n-th moment about zero of a probability density function f(x) if X is continuous, or the weighted average for a discrete probability distribution, if X is discrete.

And using the definition for a discrete random variable we know that :

E(X) =\sum_{i=1}^n X_i P(X_i)

Replacing the values that we have:

1 = 0.98*a + 0.02(a-42) = 0.98a +0.02a -0.84

And solving for a we got:

1.84 = a

So then the premium value for the insurance on this case should be 1840 dollars.

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