Answer:
0.4766
Explanation:
Given:
WACC = 9.7%
Company’s cost of equity = 12%
Pretax cost of debt = 7.5%
Tax rate = 35%
Now,
WACC
= Weight × Cost of equity + (1 - weight) × Pretax cost of debt × (1-tax rate)
or
0.097 = weight × 0.12 + ( 1 - weight ) × 0.075 × (1 - 0.35)
or
0.097 = 0.12 × weight + 0.04875 - 0.04875 × weight
or
0.04825 = 0.07125 × weight
or
weight = 0.6772
also,
weight = 
or
= 
or
= 
+ 1
or
1.4766 = + 1
or
= 0.4766
The answer to this question is <span>Company strengths and weaknesses.
In this context, company strength refers to all the factors that make the company stand out among other competitors in the market (such as good products, fame, good researchers, etc)
The weakness, on the other hand, refers to something that needed to be taken care of if the company want to win the competition in the market. (such as huge debt ratio, scandals, etc)
</span>
The net sales of the given set of data is:
<h3>What is Net Sales?</h3>
This refers to the addition of a company's gross sales minus the expenses which includes returns, allowances, etc.
The Gross Sales:
Sales revenue: $200,000
Cost of goods sold: $120,000
Total = $200,000 - $120,000
=$80,000
Expenses:
Sales allowances and discounts: $5,000
Sales discounts: $3,000
Total= $5,000 + $3,000
= $8,000
Therefore, net sales = Gross Sales – Returns – Allowances – Discounts
$80,000- $8,000
=$72,000
Read more about net sales here:
brainly.com/question/2934960
Answer: Debit: Cost of goods sold $1400
Credit: Inventory $1400
Explanation: The lower of cost or LCM rule indicates that a company needs to value it's inventory at the end of the year at whatever cost is lower, between the actual cost of the inventory or its market price currently. This is in accordance with US GAAP.
In Mariah Company the historical cost, which is the actual cost of the inventory and thus what it is valued at in the books, is $74000. Replacement cost, which is how much it would cost to replace an asset based on market rates, is only $72600. The replacement cost is thus lower. Since the inventory is still valued at historical cost in the books, it will have to been written down to the replacement cost value. To do this the difference between both costs will need to be deduced. Difference is thus: $74000 - $72600 =$1400.
When write down occurs, this is expensed to cost of goods sold. This is because there is a decrease in closing inventories. If there is a decrease in this figure then it will lead to a subsequent increase in cost of goods sold, leading to it being debited to show this increase (remember the formula to calculate cost of goods sold). Inventory is credited as the value of this inventory has decreased, and inventories decrease on the credit side.
Answer:
The applied overhead is $231,000
Explanation:
The computation of the applied overhead is shown below:
= Predetermined overhead rate × direct labor hour
= $42 × 5,500 hours
= $231,000
Since the predetermined overhead rate is given in the question, so there is no need to re calculate it.
And, the other items which are mentioned in the question are not considered in the computation part. Hence, these items would be ignored
