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kozerog [31]
3 years ago
13

The curve y = x/(1 + x2) is called a serpentine. find an equation of the tangent line to this curve at the point (2, 0.40). (rou

nd the slope and y-intercept to two decimal places.) y =
Mathematics
1 answer:
Firdavs [7]3 years ago
6 0
One way of solving this is using calculus: derivatives.

We have y =  \frac{x}{1 +  x^{2}}. Let's take this as a function of x.

So, 

f(x) =  \frac{x}{1 +  x^{2}}.

Now, we find it's derivative: f'(x). To do this, we use the quotient rule. The derivative [ f'(x) ] basically gives us the slope of the tangent line at a point x.

f'(x) =  \frac{1*(1 + x^{2}) - (2x *x)}{ (1 + x^{2} )^{2} } =  \frac{1 +  x^{2} - 2 x^{2} }{ (1 + x^{2} )^{2} } =  \frac{1 -  x^{2} }{ (1 + x^{2} )^{2} }

Now, we evaluate the derivative at the point x = 2 to find the slope of the tangent line at that point.

f'(2) =  \frac{1-  2^{2} }{ (1 + 2^{2} )^{2} } =  \frac{1-4}{ (5 )^{2} } =  \frac{-3}{25} = -0.12
Now, we have the slope and the x and y co-ordinates; thus, we can use the point slope form to find the equation of the tangent line at the point (2,0.40).

y - (0.4) = ( -0.12) *(x-2)



y -0.4 = -0.12x + 0.24

y = -0.12x + 0.28

That's the equation.

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2 years ago
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3 years ago
based on the simulation, what is the probability that at most 2 of the next 10 callers will have to wait more than 8 minutes to
Triss [41]

Using the binomial distribution, supposing that 0.3 of the callers have to wait more than 8 minutes to have their calls answered, it is found that there is a 0.3828 = 38.28% probability that at most 2 of the next 10 callers will have to wait more than 8 minutes to have their calls answered.

For each caller, there are only two possible outcomes, either they have to wait more than 8 minutes to have their calls answered, or they do not. The probability of a caller having to wait more than 8 minutes is independent of any other caller, which means that the binomial distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

The parameters are:

  • x is the number of successes.
  • n is the number of trials.
  • p is the probability of a success on a single trial.

In this problem:

  • 10 callers, hence n = 10
  • Suppose that 0.3 of them have to wait more than 8 minutes, hence p = 0.3

The probability that <u>at most 2</u> of the next 10 callers will have to wait more than 8 minutes is:

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2)

Then

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.3)^{0}.(0.7)^{10} = 0.0282

P(X = 1) = C_{10,1}.(0.3)^{1}.(0.7)^{9} = 0.1211

P(X = 2) = C_{10,2}.(0.3)^{2}.(0.7)^{8} = 0.2335

Then:

P(X \leq 2) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) + P(X = 2) = 0.0282 + 0.1211 + 0.2335 = 0.3828

0.3828 = 38.28% probability that at most 2 of the next 10 callers will have to wait more than 8 minutes to have their calls answered.

A similar problem is given at brainly.com/question/25537909

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3 years ago
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Do 100÷8, then whatever the answer is multiply it by 8 and ta da
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