1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
rodikova [14]
3 years ago
6

The McDonald family spends no more than 150$ for groceries each week. Write the inequality

Mathematics
1 answer:
Lorico [155]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

m ≤ 150

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the variable "m" = the McDonald family.

Note that "spends no more than" means that they can spend less than or equal to the number provided, but not greater than. The sign for "less than or equal to" is ≤. 150 is the limit.

Set the inequality:

<em>m</em> ≤ 150 is your answer.

~

You might be interested in
What is the answer to this question
stiv31 [10]
4(d-8)-5 = 9(d+2)+1

Assuming you're looking for d:

Use Distributive Property for both sides
4d-32-5 = 9d+18+1

Combine like terms
4d-37 = 9d+19

Take all d's to one side & numbers to other
-37-19 = 9d-4d

Simplify
-56 = 5d

Divide both sides by 5
d = -56/5

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
X = y - 3<br> 2x + y = 12
saw5 [17]

Answer:

hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm

3 0
3 years ago
How are a rhombus and a square alike
aleksandrvk [35]
A rhombus<span> is </span>similar<span> to a </span>square<span> in two ways: both have two pairs of parallel sides and both have four equal sides. A </span>rhombus<span> is different from a </span>square <span>because it does not have four right angles. All squares are also rhombuses.</span>
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
MAtHhHhHHhhHHHH Ughhhhhhhhhh
yan [13]

The probability of three independent events happening one after the other is the multiplication of the probability of the single events.

The probability of spinning an odd number is 5/10=1/2, because there are 5 odd numbers (1,3,5,7 and 9) out of the 10 numbers from 1 to 10.

The probability of spinning a number less than 4 is 3/10, because there are 3 numbers (1,2 and 3) that are less than 4 out of the 10 numbers from 1 to 10.

The probability of spinning a 7 is 1/10, because you only have one good outcome out of 10.

So, the probability of winning the game is

\dfrac{1}{2}\times\dfrac{3}{10}\times\dfrac{1}{10} = \dfrac{3}{200}

3 0
3 years ago
The average production cost for major movies is 65 million dollars and the standard deviation is 18 million dollars. Assume the
Lemur [1.5K]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello!

The variable of interest is

X: production cost of a major move

Its average is μ= 65 million dollars, and standard deviation σ= 18 million dollars.

a)

This variable has a normal distribution X~N(μ;σ²)

X~N(65;324)

b)

The distribution of the sample mean has the same shape as the distribution of the variable, but its variance is affected by the sample size:

\frac{}{X}~N(μ;σ²/n) ⇒ \frac{}{X}~N(65;8.3077)

σ²/n= 324/39= 8.30769≅ 8.3077

c)

You have to calculate the probability of a single movie costing between 69 and  66 million dollars, symbolically:

P(66≤X≤69)= (X≤69)-P(X≤66)

You have to use the standard normal distribution to calculate this probability, so first you have to calculate the Z values that correspond to each value of X using: Z= (X-μ)/σ  ~ N(0;1)

Z₁= (69-65)/18= 0.22

Z₂=(66-65)/18= 0.05

Now you look for the corresponding probability values using the standard normal table

P(Z≤0.22)= 0.58706

P(Z≤0.05)= 0.51994

P(66≤X≤69)= (X≤69)-P(X≤66)

P(Z≤0.22)-P(Z≤0.05)= 0.58706 - 0.51994= 0.06712

d)

Now you have to calculate the probability of the average production cost to be between 69 and 66 million. Since the probability is for the average value of the sample, you have to work using the distribution of the sample mean. The values od Z are to be calculated using the formula Z=  (\frac{}{X}-μ)/(σ/√n)

σ/√n= 2.8823

P(66≤\frac{}{X}≤69)= (\frac{}{X}≤69)-P(\frac{}{X}≤66)

Z₁= (69-65)/2.8823= 1.387= 1.39

Z₂= (66-65)/2.8823= 0.346= 0.35

P(Z≤1.39)-P(Z≤0.35)= 0.91774 - 0.63683= 0.28091

e)

No

If the variable has an unknown or non-normal distribution, but the sample is large enough (normally a sample n≥30 is considered to be large) you can apply the central limit theorem and approximate the sampling distribution to normal.

I hope this helps!

5 0
4 years ago
Other questions:
  • Bob traveled 90 miles which was 83 1 3 % of his entire trip. How many miles did he have left?
    12·1 answer
  • What’s the median of this set? 67,68,69,69,69,71,71,72,73,75
    9·2 answers
  • Compute​ P(X) using the binomial probability formula. Then determine whether the normal distribution can be used to estimate thi
    9·1 answer
  • 1/2 of 1/3 and 1/2 of 3/4<br>sorry having a panic attack cant do math​
    5·2 answers
  • Drag each tile to the table to multiply
    8·1 answer
  • Please help,Thanks;)
    11·1 answer
  • if becky earns 10.19 per hour they amount she earns in 1 hr is 10.19t . determine if she works 13 hours
    15·1 answer
  • If x = 14 and y = 6, what is the value of the following expression? x - 8 + 2y
    7·2 answers
  • Find an equation for the line that passes through the points -4, -1 and 2, 3
    13·1 answer
  • Can anyone help me please ?
    13·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!