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nataly862011 [7]
3 years ago
5

What method would be the easiest to solve this equation?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Advocard [28]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

1, -6

Step-by-step explanation:

Easiest is just to factor

(x+1)(x-6)=0

artcher [175]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: <em>x</em>=6,-1

Explanation:

In this case, factoring would be the “easiest” since we have “nice numbers.”

The Steps:

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How do you do these questions?
Lady bird [3.3K]

Answer:

(e) csc x − cot x − ln(1 + cos x) + C

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Step-by-step explanation:

(e) ∫ (1 + sin x) / (1 + cos x) dx

Split the integral.

∫ 1 / (1 + cos x) dx + ∫ sin x / (1 + cos x) dx

Multiply top and bottom of first integral by the conjugate, 1 − cos x.

∫ (1 − cos x) / (1 − cos²x) dx + ∫ sin x / (1 + cos x) dx

Pythagorean identity.

∫ (1 − cos x) / (sin²x) dx + ∫ sin x / (1 + cos x) dx

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Integrate.

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(c) ∫₋₇⁷ erf(x) dx

= ∫₋₇⁰ erf(x) dx + ∫₀⁷ erf(x) dx

The error function is odd (erf(-x) = -erf(x)), so:

= -∫₀⁷ erf(x) dx + ∫₀⁷ erf(x) dx

= 0

7 0
3 years ago
Dishwashers are on sale for 25% off the original price ( d ), which can be expressed with the function p ( d ) = 0.75d. Local ta
Marta_Voda [28]
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3 years ago
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KIM [24]
The answer is b
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Hope this helps!
8 0
3 years ago
Can you help me with this problem please. I will mark brainlist
schepotkina [342]

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

A pint is half of a quart, so multiply 2 3/4, or 2.75 by 2, and you'll get your answer. If

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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