Base on my research this type of argument is baseless but it depends on the 100% free enterprise market system. With this system, the government doesn't have regulatory powers to protect the interest of the consumers from the financial institutions. In a situation that without the interest rate modulation, the rate charged on loans could be 40% while the rate paid on savings could be 1%. If this happens the financial institutions will not have to pay FDIC insurance to ensure the solvency of the overall system.
Answer:
See explanation section
Explanation:
(a) December 1 Cash Debit $18,000
Unearned revenue Credit $18,000
<em>Note: The company received the money in advance for a contract to do during December to April. Therefore, they received cash while a liability increased due to receiving advance money.</em>
(b) December 31 Unearned revenue Debit $3,600
Service revenue Credit $3,600
<em>Note: As the company started performing, after the completion of 1st month, i.e., December 1 to December 31, the advance money started expiring because of providing services. Moreover, as the service is performed evenly for 5 months, the 1st month's revenue = $(18,000/5) = $3,600.</em>
Answer:
National savings are repaid domestically, whereas capital inflows are repaid to a foreigner.
Explanation:
National savings refer to the portion of the income that is not consumed, or spent by government. It is the combined or aggregate value of all private savings and the budget balance. Therefore, national savings are repaid domestically when borrowed.
Capital inflow refers to the net amount of funds that is moved into a particular benefiting company from another country. It is usually in form of investments by foreigners and it is meant to be paid back to them.
That has share holders and a board of directors.
