Okay so here I go ima bout to explain it
<span>1 x 40 = 40
2 x 20 = 40
4 x 10 = 40
5 x 8 = 40
8 x 5 = 40
10 x 4 = 40
20 x 2 = 40
40 x 1 = 40
???</span>
P(being delayed on M1) = 0.5 →P(NOT being delayed on M1) = 1-0.5 = 0.5
P(being delayed on M42)=0.75→P(NOT being delayed on M42) = 1-0.75= 0.25
P(NOT being delayed on M1) AND P(NOT being delayed on M42) = 0.5x0.25
→ 0.125 = 1/8
So, the chances he will not be delayed on his journey is 1/8
Hi there!
To find an integer equivalent to this mixed number, we can simplify it.
25 3/2 = 26 1/2
So, 26 1/2 is an answer.
Hope this helps!
