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lidiya [134]
3 years ago
14

Casey Nelson is a divisional manager for Pigeon Company. His annual pay raises are largely determined by his division’s return o

n investment (ROI), which has been above 24% each of the last three years. Casey is considering a capital budgeting project that would require a $6,100,000 investment in equipment with a useful life of five years and no salvage value. Pigeon Company’s discount rate is 20%. The project would provide net operating income each year for five years as follows:
Sales $ 5,400,000

Variable expenses 2,400,000

Contribution margin 3,000,000

Fixed expenses: Advertising, salaries, and other fixed out-of-pocket costs $900,000

Depreciation 1,220,000

Total fixed expenses 2,120,000

Net operating income $ 880,000

Required: 1. What is the project’s net present value? (Round discount factor(s) to 3 decimal places.)

2. What is the project’s internal rate of return to the nearest whole percent?

3. What is the project’s simple rate of return? (Round percentage answer to 1 decimal place. i.e. 0.123 should be considered as 12.3%.)
Business
1 answer:
baherus [9]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

NPV: $180,285.49

IRR: 21.336%

simple rate of return: 72.13%

Explanation:

6,100,000 investment

contribution margin 3,000,000

fixed expense:       <u>     900,000  </u>

EBITA                         2,100,000

We will calculate the NPV without the depreciation, as the depreciation is the distribution of the investment cost over the project life.

If we include the depreciation we will be counting the investment amount twice. Entirely at Time 0  and then subtracting on each cash inflow.

We will calculate the NPV at 20% as is the company's discount rate. Even if the current division returns are in 24% as the company accepts project which yields 20%.

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 2,100,000

time 5 years

rate 20% = 20/100 = 0.2

2100000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.2)^{-5} }{0.2} = PV\\

PV $6,280,285.49

NPV = PV of cash inflow - investment

6,280,285.49 - 6,100,000 = 180,285.49

<u>the IRR:</u>

The internal rate of return is the rate at which the NPV of a priject is zero.

We calculate this using excel formula IRR

or a financial calculator

it could also be done with trial and error using the PV tables.

<u>I will explain you in Excel</u>

FIrst, you write the inflow and outflow per year:

-6,100,000

2,100,000

2,100,000

2,100,000

2,100,000

2,100,000

then we write on another cell:

=IRR(

then, select the cells

and press enter

21.336%

<u>the simple rate of return:</u>

(total return - investment) / investment

(2,100,000 x 5 - 6,100,000) / 6,100,000 =

4,400,000 / 6,100,000 = 0.721311475 = 72.13%

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select the correct answer. weight management is one benefit of participating in sports. which sentence is true regarding weight
aksik [14]

Regular participation in sports helps preserve muscle mass.

What is Weight Management ?

Weight management is the process of making long-term lifestyle changes to maintain a healthy body weight based on a person's age, gender, and height. Weight management techniques include maintaining a balanced diet and improving physical activity levels.

The overarching goals of weight loss and management are:

  • To avoid further weight gain. If prescribed, to lose weight.
  • To maintain a reduced body weight over time.
  • Specific targets can be set for each of these objectives.

Meal planning allows you to make healthier choices that are not driven by physical hunger. Plan home-cooked meals, with restaurant dining reserved for exceptional occasions. Packing low-calorie snacks such as fresh fruits, veggies, and whole grains will help regulate hunger throughout the day.

To know more about Weight Management

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Complete Question :-

Weight management is one benefit of participating in sports. Which sentence is true regarding weight management?

  1. To lose weight you must burn fewer calories than you consume.
  2. Regular participation in sports helps preserve muscle mass.
  3. You burn more calories when engaged in a sports activity that is less intense.
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5 0
2 years ago
On January 1, 2020, the balance sheet of Naperville Company (a sole proprietorship) was as follows.
guapka [62]

Answer:

Explanation:

From the information povided:

(a) To compute the amount of goodwill paid by Chicago Corporation

Particulars                                            Amount ($)

Accounts Receivable                           100000

Inventory                                               170000

Plant & Equipment                               400000

Land                                                        90000

Customer List                                            4000

Trade Names                                          <u> 16000</u>

     NET ASSETS  (A)                             <u>780000</u>

<u />

Current liabilities                                     76000

Non-current liabilities                            <u>160000 </u>

      NET LIABILITIES (B)                        <u> 236000</u>

∴

PURCHASE  CONSIDERATION (A -B)   544000

<u>Less:</u>  Cash Paid                                    <u>  580000</u>

          GODWILL                                    <u>    36000 </u>

<u />

b)

In the books of Chicago Corporation, the Journal Entry to record the purchase of Naperville Company.

Account Name                                       Dr.                      Cr.

Accounts Receivable A/C                  100000

Inventory A/C                                       170000

Plant Equipment  A/C                          400000

Land A/C                                                 90000

Customer List A/C                                    4000

Trade Names A/C                                   16000

Goodwill A/C                                           36000

Current liabilities A/C                                                       76000

Non-Current Liabilities A/C                                             160000

Cash A/C                                                                          580000

c)

The minimum required amount of goodwill that Chicago can amortize by the end of 2020 is $3600.This is because the amortization can take place for a period of 10 years.

<u />

8 0
3 years ago
The cash conversion cycle is computed as:
Anna [14]

Answer:

The correct option here is A) Days sales outstanding + Days inventory outstanding - Days payable outstanding.

Explanation:

Cash conversion cycle which is also termed as Net operating cycle or Cash cycle, this cycle tells us about how much time it is going to take for an organization to converts the amount of investment it has made in the inventory and various other resources to cash , which will be generated by sales.

Formula used for calculation =

                             AMOUNT OF SALES OUTSTANDING IN DAYS

                                                  +

                             AMOUNT OF INVENTORY OUTSTANDING IN DAYS

                                                  +

                             AMOUNT OF PAYABLE OUTSTANDING IN DAYS

4 0
3 years ago
Your investment portfolio consists of ​$15 comma 000 invested in only one stocklong dashAmazon. Suppose the​ risk-free rate is 5
Kay [80]

Answer:

a)

The CAPM hypothesis states that the effective market is utilized place in the market and has the maximum eminent expected return of any assortment for a given randomness and the smallest variability for a assumed expected return. By allotment utilized place in the market assortment, you can achieve a standard return,

Thus,  

Expected Rate of Return = [Risk free Rate + Beta × (Market Risk - Risk free Rate)]

Beta = [Expected Rate of Return – Risk Free Rate] / [Market Risk - Risk free Rate]

Beta = [12% - 5%] / [10% -5%]

Beta = 7/5

Beta =1.4

The final possible instability while taking the same estimated rate of return as Amazon is $21,000 ($15,000 × 1.4) which indicate that it borrows $6,000 ($21,000 - $15,000). Now the -$6,000 is specified as strength benefit. So the volatility of the asset is,

Volatility = [Volatility of Asset x Beta]

Volatility = [18% × 1.4]

Volatility = 0.252 or 25.20%

Therefore the volatility is less than the volatility of Amazon.

b)

The market share has a instability of "n". The corresponding instability of Amazon will be 2.22 (40%/18%). So the assortment with the most notable predictable give back that has a faint variability from Amazon is $33,333.33 ($15,000x 2.22) which will be the market assortment and it also uses $18,333.33 ($33,333.33 - $15,000). Here the -$18,333.33 is specified as strength asset. So the return is,

Expected Return = [Risk free Rate + Beta × (Market Risk – Risk free Rate)]

Expected Return = [5%+ 122 × (10% - 5%)]

Expected Return = [5%+ 122 × 5%]

Expected Return = [0.05+0.111111]

Expected Return = 0.161111 or1 6.11%

Therefore the volatility is higher than the expected return of Amazon.

8 0
3 years ago
Fire insurance policies include deductibles:
stiv31 [10]
1. A im not to sure for this one.... :/ 
2. A  Signaling ; reputation 
5 0
3 years ago
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