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Mademuasel [1]
3 years ago
7

On January 1, 2010, Sunshine company issues bonds maturing in 10 years. The par value of the bonds is $500,000, the annual coupo

n rate is 4%, and the compounding period is annually. The market initially prices these bonds using market interest rate 6%. The market interest rate on December 31, 2010 was 7%.Were the bonds issued at par, at discount or at premium? Why? (3 points)
Calculate the issue price. (4 points)

Record journal entry on the date of issuance. (3 points)

Calculate the interest expense on Dec 31, 2010. (2 points)

Record journal entry on the interest expense on Dec 31, 2010. (3 points)

Will the interest expense increase or decrease over the years? Why? (3 point)

Record journal entry on Dec 31, 2019 for the final redemption (2 point)
Business
1 answer:
zheka24 [161]3 years ago
6 0

Answer and Explanation:

a. The bonds is issued at a discount, since the coupon rate is lower than the interest rate on the market.

b. Par value = $500,000.

Annual coupon = Par value of bonds × Coupon rate

= $500,000 × 4 %

= $20,000

Interest rate = 6%

n = 10

Present value of an annuity 6%, n = 10 = ((1 - ( 1 ÷ 1.06 ) × 10) ÷ 0.06)

= 7.3601

Present value 6%, n = 10 = (1 ÷ 1.06) × 10

= 0.5584

Issue price of the bonds = Annual coupon × Present value of an annuity + Par value of bonds × Present value

= $20,000 × 7.3601 + $500,000 × 0.5584

= $147,202 + $279,200

= $426,402

3.The Journal entry is shown below:-

Cash Dr, 426,402  

     To Discount on Bonds Payable $73,598  

      To Bonds Payable $500,000

Being cash is recorded)

4. Interest expense for the year ended December 31, 2010 = Issue price of the bonds × Interest rate

= $426,402 × 7%

= $29,848.14

5. The Journal entry is shown below:-

Interest Expense Dr, 29,848  

Discount on Bonds Payable Dr, 9,848  

      To Cash $20,000

(Being interest expenses is recorded)

6. Over the years the interest rate would rise as the bonds were issued at a discount.

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leonid [27]
Most likely, it will be India.  Please mark Brainliest!!!
3 0
3 years ago
Consider the following projects. Project CO C1 C2 СЗ C4 C5 A -1,000 +1,000 0 0 0 10 B -2,000 |+1,000 |+1,000 +4,000 +1,000 +1,00
Nuetrik [128]

Answer:

a) $3,458

Explanation:

The net present value is the present value of future cash flows discounted at the firm's weighted average cost of capital(which is the appropriate discount rate in this case) minus the initial investment outlay

cost of equity=risk-free rate+beta*(expected market return-risk free rate)

cost of equity=2.5%+1.5*(12%-2.5%)

cost of equity=16.75%

after-tax cost of debt=5.2%*(1-21%)

after-tax cost of debt=4.11%

WACC=(weight of equity*cost of equity)+(weight of debt*after-tax cost of debt)

weight of equity=value of equity/(value of equity+value of debt)

value of equity=6 billion*$3=$18 billion

value of debt=$5 billion

weight of equity=$18 billion/($18 billion+$5 billion)

weight of equity=78.26%

weight of debt=1-78.26%

weight of debt=21.74%

WACC=(78.26%*16.75%)+(21.74%*4.11%)

WACC=14.00%

present value of a future cash flow=future cash flow/(1+WACC)^n

n is the year in which the cash flow is expected, it is 1 for year 1 cash flow, 2 for year 2 cash flow ,and so on

NPV of project B=1000/(1+14%)^1+1000/(1+14%)^2++4000/(1+14%)^3+1000/(1+14%)^4+1000/(1+14%)^5-2000

NPV of project B=$ 3,458.00  

5 0
2 years ago
10. You are offered an annuity that will pay you $200,000 once every year, at the end of each year, for 25 years (i.e. the first
seraphim [82]

Answer:

PV= $2,749,494

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Cash flow= $200,000

Number of periods= 25

Interest rate= 5.25%

<u>First, we need to calculate the future value using the following formula:</u>

FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i

A= annual cash flow

FV= {200,000* [(1.0525^25) - 1]} / 0.0525

FV= $9,881,102.14

<u>Now, the present value:</u>

PV= FV/(1+i)^n

PV= 9,881,102.14 / (1.0525^25)

PV= $2,749,494

6 0
3 years ago
The search for and utilization of the best methods used by competitors and non-competitors that lead to superior performance is
eimsori [14]

Answer:

Bench-marking

Explanation:

Benchmarking is the process that works for comparing the products, services, etc by the other companies who are dealing with the same type of business that refers to the best in the industry or performing superior performance.

It could be done either by the cost, quality, time, quantity, etc

The aim of doing this process is to gain the competitive advantage so that they get to know their strength, weakness, opportunities, and threats

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Rediger Incorporated a manufacturing Corporation, has provided the following data for the month of June. The balance in the Work
saveliy_v [14]

Answer:

cost of goods manufactured= $161,800

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Beginning Work in Process inventory= $41,000

Ending Work in Process inventory= $26,500

Direct materials= $58,800

Direct labor cost= $33,700.

The manufacturing overhead cost applied to Work in Process was $54,800.

<u>To calculate the cost of goods manufactured, we need to use the following formula:</u>

<u></u>

cost of goods manufactured= beginning WIP + direct materials + direct labor + <u>allocated manufacturing overhead</u> - Ending WIP

cost of goods manufactured= 41,000 + 58,800 + 33,700 + 54,800 - 26,500

cost of goods manufactured= $161,800

3 0
3 years ago
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