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algol [13]
4 years ago
5

Scoring a hole-in-one is the greatest shot a golfer can make. Once 5 professional golfers each made holes-in-one on the 7th hole

at the same golf course at the same tournament. It has been found that the estimated probability of making a hole-in-one is (1/2494) for male professionals. Suppose that a sample of 5 professional male golfers is randomly selected.
(a) What is the probability that at least one of these golfers makes a hole-in-one on the 10th hole at the same tournament?
(b) What is the probability that all of these golfers make a hole-in-one on the 10th hole at the same tournament?
Mathematics
1 answer:
adell [148]4 years ago
5 0
A) Probability  that at least one of these golfers makes a hole in one on the 10th hole at the same tournament is 

<span>=1−(<span>2493/2494</span><span>)^<span>5
=1-(0.99)^5
= 1- 0.96
=0.4

b) T</span></span></span><span>he probability that all of these golfers make a hole-in-one on the 10th hole at the same tournament
=</span>(<span>1/2494</span><span>)<span>5
</span></span>
which is nearly zero.
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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

I always like to use the mean if I can. In this data set, it's probably not a very good idea. Too much weight is given to that 7.2 and the two 3.2s.

I would choose the median, because the mode is the same answer and that's a good enough reason for choosing anything. 2 out 3 isn't bad as they say in Baseball.

6 0
3 years ago
Lisa wants to buy material for her dress. If she buys 7metres, she is 1 dollar short. If she buys 5metres, 5 dollars is left ove
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Answer:

She has 15 dollar.

Explanation

If every meter costs 2 dollars, then 5 meter would cost 10 dollars and 7 meter would cost 14 dollar. Now we take a number when subtracted from 10, we get 5 dollar and when the same number subtracted from 14 we get 1 dollar left. Now if we take 15 dollar, you'll see that when you subtract 10 from it you get 5 dollar and when you subtract 14 from it you get 1 dollar. Therefore 15 satisfies the given condition in the question.

$15 - $10 = $5

$15 - $14 = $1

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3 years ago
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Mariulka [41]

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Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Two athletic teams play a series of games; the first team to win 4 games is declared the overall winner. Suppose that one of the
kodGreya [7K]

Answer:

  • p=0.7103 (4-game series)
  • p=0.6480 (2-game series)

Step-by-step explanation:

Let X be the random variable equal the the first 4 straight wins. An overall win for the stronger team implies a negative binomial function with the parameters  n=4, p=0.6:

P(X=4)={{i-1}\choose {4-1}}0.6^40.4^{i-4},\  i=4,5,6,7

#We find probabilities for the different values of i:

P(X=4)={3\choose 3}0.6^4=0.1296\\\\P(X=5)={4\choose 3}0.6^40.4^1=0.2074\\\\P(X=6)={5\choose 3}0.6^40.4^2=0.2074\\\\P(X=4)={6\choose 3}0.6^40.4^3=0.1659

Hence, probability of the stronger team winning overall is:

=P(X=4)+P(X=5)+P(X=6)+P(X=7)\\\\=0.7103

#Define Y as the random variable for winning 2/3 games.:

P(Y=2)={1\choose 1}0.6^2=0.3600\\\\P(Y=3)={2\choose3}0.6^20.4=0.2880\\\\P(win)=0.2880+0.3600=0.6480

Hence, probability of the stronger team winning in 2 out 3 game series is 0.6480

The stronger team has a higher chance of winning in a 4-game series(0.7103>0.6480)

8 0
3 years ago
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Elena L [17]
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double it means 2 times x or 2x

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3 0
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