Let
a1=1/40
a2=4/40
a3=9/40
a4=16/40
a5=25/40
a6=?
we know that
a2-a1=4/40-1/40----> 3/40
a3-a2=9/40-4/40-----> 5/40
a4-a3=16/40-9/40----> 7/40
a5-a4=25/40-16/40---> 9/40
the difference is
3/40,5/40,7/40.9/40,....
3/40+[2/40]---> 5/40
5/40+[2/40]---> 7/40
7/40+[2/40]---> 9/40
the next will be
9/40+[2/40]-----> 11/40
so
the next term is 25/40+[11/40]------> 36/40
the answer is
36/40
Answer:
22
Step-by-step explanation:
We can use the order of operations (PEMDAS), to solve this equation.
We must first multiply and divide, and order. This means we divide 12 by 3 and get 4, then multiply that by 2 and get 8. (30-12÷3×2,30-4×2,30-8). Now we just subtract 8 from 30 and get 22 as our answer.
Answer:
1536 square inches
Step-by-step explanation:
In units of 5 feet, the backdrop is 3 units wide and 2 units high, for a total area of 3×2 = 6 square units.
Those same units on the scale drawing are each 16 inches. One square unit on the scale drawing is (16 in)² = 256 in². So, 6 of them have an area of ...
6 × 256 in² = 1536 in²
Answer:
Iam not sure but i think its -14.45$
Step-by-step explanation:
45.55-20-20-20
Answer:
The value is 13
Step-by-step explanation:
Means absolute value. This means no matter the sign of the number (negative or positive) we are just looking for the value of the number
Hope this helps:)
